ATI RN
microbiology chapter 13 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult due to its long half-life and diverse functions. 2. It plays a crucial role in immune response by neutralizing pathogens and enhancing phagocytosis. 3. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgE is involved in allergic reactions, and IgD's function is not fully understood. 4. Therefore, IgG is the correct answer as it is the predominant immunoglobin in circulation, providing broad immune protection.
Question 2 of 9
As an example of specific human parasites one can name Plasmodium falciparum, human pinworm and some others. The source of parasite invasion is always a human. Such specific human parasites cause the diseases that are called:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anthroponoses. This term refers to diseases caused by specific human parasites that are transmitted directly from human to human. In this case, the source of parasite invasion is always a human host. This term specifically describes diseases caused by parasites that exclusively infect humans. Choice B: Zoonoses refers to diseases that can be transmitted from animals to humans. Choice C: Anthropozoonoses is a combination of zoonoses and anthroponoses, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D: Infections is a general term that does not specify the source or type of parasite causing the disease.
Question 3 of 9
For measles virus is true that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contains single-stranded RNA with negative polarity. Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome that is negative-sense. This means it must first be transcribed into positive-sense RNA before it can be translated. Choice A is incorrect as the measles virus does have an outer envelope. Choice C is incorrect as measles virus belongs to the family Paramyxoviridae, not Togaviridae. Choice D is incorrect as measles virus can be grown on cell cultures, specifically on Vero cells.
Question 4 of 9
Sterilization is a process that:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because sterilization is the process of completely destroying all microorganisms, including resistant forms like spores, ensuring no viable organisms remain. This is crucial for ensuring complete elimination of potential pathogens. Choice A is incorrect because sterilization should eliminate all microorganisms, including spores. Choice C is incorrect as it describes disinfection, not sterilization. Choice D is incorrect because sterilization aims to eradicate all microorganisms, not leave any viable ones behind.
Question 5 of 9
Laboratory diagnosis of rabies includes all of these except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Looking for Ernst-Babes granules. Laboratory diagnosis of rabies typically involves looking for Negri bodies in the brain tissue, intracerebrally infecting mice for virus isolation, and using immunofluorescence method to detect viral antigens. Ernst-Babes granules are not associated with rabies virus and are not used in the diagnosis of rabies. Therefore, choice C is incorrect.
Question 6 of 9
Cells that contain a nucleus are __________ cells.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: eukaryotic. Eukaryotic cells have a well-defined nucleus that encloses the genetic material. The nucleus is a distinguishing feature of eukaryotic cells, separating them from prokaryotic cells (choice A) which lack a nucleus. Anucleate cells (choice C) are cells that do not have a nucleus at all. Haploid cells (choice D) contain a single set of chromosomes, but this does not necessarily imply the presence of a nucleus. Therefore, the presence of a nucleus is what categorizes cells as eukaryotic.
Question 7 of 9
There are __________ known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: five. Escherichia coli can cause enterotoxigenic E. coli (ETEC), enteroinvasive E. coli (EIEC), enterohemorrhagic E. coli (EHEC), enteroaggregative E. coli (EAEC), and diffusely adherent E. coli (DAEC). Each form has distinct characteristics and pathogenesis. Therefore, the other choices (A, B, C) are incorrect because they do not accurately represent the number of known forms of gastroenteritis caused by Escherichia coli.
Question 8 of 9
For cultivation of Brucella, pure cultures should be incubated in CO2 enriched atmosphere. What type of breathing is typical for Brucella?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Capnophilic. Brucella requires a CO2 enriched atmosphere for cultivation, making it capnophilic. This is because Brucella is a microaerophilic bacterium that thrives in low oxygen conditions and elevated CO2 levels. Choice B (Facultative anaerobic) and D (Obligate aerobic) are incorrect as Brucella does not grow well under aerobic conditions. Choice C (Obligate anaerobic) is also incorrect as Brucella can grow in the presence of oxygen, although it prefers low oxygen environments.
Question 9 of 9
Which is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult due to its long half-life and diverse functions. 2. It plays a crucial role in immune response by neutralizing pathogens and enhancing phagocytosis. 3. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgE is involved in allergic reactions, and IgD's function is not fully understood. 4. Therefore, IgG is the correct answer as it is the predominant immunoglobin in circulation, providing broad immune protection.