Which is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. IgG is the most abundant immunoglobin in a normal healthy adult due to its long half-life and diverse functions. 2. It plays a crucial role in immune response by neutralizing pathogens and enhancing phagocytosis. 3. IgA is mainly found in mucosal areas, IgE is involved in allergic reactions, and IgD's function is not fully understood. 4. Therefore, IgG is the correct answer as it is the predominant immunoglobin in circulation, providing broad immune protection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pyogenes. This bacterium fits all the given characteristics: Gram-positive cocci arranged in chains, catalase-negative, and beta-hemolytic on blood agar. Streptococcus pyogenes is known for causing skin and soft tissue infections. Staphylococcus aureus (B) is catalase-positive and typically forms clusters, not chains. Enterococcus faecalis (C) is catalase-negative but not beta-hemolytic. Micrococcus luteus (D) is catalase-positive and not typically associated with wound infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis presents with headache, fever, muscle pain, jaundice, and kidney involvement. The patient's symptoms of headache, lumbar and muscle pain, high fever, icteric scleras, and dark urine are classic for Leptospirosis. The enlarged liver could be due to liver involvement in the disease. The absence of splenic enlargement and normal stool color rule out malaria. Infectious mononucleosis typically presents with sore throat and lymphadenopathy, which are absent in this case. Viral hepatitis A may present with similar symptoms, but the presence of muscle pain and dark urine is more indicative of Leptospirosis. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms and clinical findings, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because immunofluorescence slides are examined under a fluorescence microscope with a x100 oil immersion objective. This is because immunofluorescence relies on the detection of fluorescently labeled antibodies, which emit light when excited by a specific wavelength. Using a fluorescence microscope allows for visualization of these labeled antibodies at high magnification and resolution, enabling precise examination of cellular structures and protein localization. Choice B is incorrect as light microscopes are not suitable for visualizing fluorescence. Choice C is incorrect as electron microscopes use electrons, not light, for imaging, which is not compatible with immunofluorescence. Choice D is incorrect as there is a specific method for examining immunofluorescence slides.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: yeast and molds. Yeast and molds can resist acidic pH due to their ability to maintain a stable internal pH through various mechanisms such as ion transport and cell wall composition. Bacteria, including E. coli, are generally more sensitive to acidic conditions. Choice D is incorrect as yeast and molds are known to thrive in acidic environments.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Contains single-stranded RNA with negative polarity. Measles virus is an enveloped virus with a single-stranded RNA genome that is negative-sense. This means it must first be transcribed into positive-sense RNA before it can be translated. Choice A is incorrect as the measles virus does have an outer envelope. Choice C is incorrect as measles virus belongs to the family Paramyxoviridae, not Togaviridae. Choice D is incorrect as measles virus can be grown on cell cultures, specifically on Vero cells.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most probable diagnosis is A: Candidous cheilitis. Candidous cheilitis is a fungal infection caused by Candida species. In this case, the presence of mycelium on the plaques indicates a fungal infection. The symptoms of pain, burning, and grey plaques that can be easily removed leaving hyperemia are typical for Candidous cheilitis. Choice B (Exfoliative cheilitis) is characterized by scaling and peeling of the lips, not plaques with mycelium. Choice C (Leukoplakia) is a precancerous condition causing white plaques that cannot be easily removed. Choice D (Contactant allergic cheilitis) is an allergic reaction causing inflammation, not fungal plaques.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is the most likely causative agent based on the description of Gram-positive cocci in pairs with a capsule. S. pneumoniae is known for its characteristic morphology and the presence of a capsule, which helps in evading the immune system. It commonly causes pneumonia, especially in patients with a productive cough and fever. Incorrect choices: B: Klebsiella pneumoniae typically presents with a mucoid capsule and is associated with pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals. C: Neisseria meningitidis is a Gram-negative diplococcus and is more commonly associated with meningitis and septicemia. D: Staphylococcus aureus is a Gram-positive cocci, but it does not typically present in pairs with a capsule and is more commonly associated with skin and soft tissue infections.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: germination. In the lytic life cycle of phages, germination is not a stage. The lytic cycle involves adsorption, penetration, replication, assembly, and lysis. Germination is typically associated with the lysogenic cycle, where the phage DNA integrates into the host genome. Therefore, A is the correct answer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they are all stages of the lytic cycle. Penetration refers to the injection of phage DNA into the host cell, adsorption is the attachment of the phage to the host cell, and lysis is the final stage where the host cell bursts, releasing new phages.