ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is the main mechanism of passing the infection with Listeria monocytogenes from man to man:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, transplacental mechanism. Listeria monocytogenes can cross the placenta, infecting the fetus during pregnancy. This mechanism allows the bacteria to be transmitted from mother to baby in utero. Alimentary mechanism (A) involves ingestion of contaminated food, not direct transfer between individuals. Transmission (B) is a broad term that doesn't specify the specific route of Listeria transmission. Physical contact (D) is not a common mode of Listeria transmission compared to transplacental transmission in the case of maternal-fetal infection.
Question 2 of 9
The taxonomic resource for information on bacteria is __________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Bergey's Manual of Systematic Bacteriology. This manual is a comprehensive and authoritative resource specifically dedicated to bacterial taxonomy, classification, and identification. It provides detailed descriptions and classification schemes for bacteria, aiding in accurate identification and understanding of bacterial species. Gray's Anatomy (choice A) focuses on human anatomy, the WHO Manual (choice C) focuses on global health guidelines, and Darwin's Origin of Species (choice D) discusses evolution and natural selection, none of which are specialized taxonomic resources for bacteria.
Question 3 of 9
Which statement about leptospirosis is INCORRECT:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because Leptospira cannot be cultivated on blood and chocolate agar. The bacterium requires specialized media such as Ellinghausen-McCullough-Johnson-Harris (EMJH) medium for growth. Blood and chocolate agar do not provide the necessary nutrients for the bacterium's growth. Leptospira is a fastidious organism that has unique culture requirements. Therefore, the statement that Leptospira can be cultivated on blood and chocolate agar is incorrect. The other choices are correct: A - Leptospirosis is an acute infectious disease with a typical geographic distribution, B - Reservoirs of leptospira are different wild and domestic animals, mainly rodents, and D - Doxycycline and penicillins are drugs of choice for the treatment of leptospirosis.
Question 4 of 9
The tool of choice to observe living microorganisms is the
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: phase-contrast microscope. This type of microscope is ideal for observing living microorganisms because it enhances the contrast of transparent specimens without the need for staining or fixing, allowing for clear visualization of internal structures and movements. Bright-field microscopes (A) are suitable for observing fixed and stained specimens, not living organisms. Fluorescence microscopes (C) are used to detect specific cellular components tagged with fluorescent markers, not ideal for observing overall morphology. Electron microscopes (D) use electron beams and are best for viewing detailed structures at high magnification, but are not suitable for observing living organisms due to the need for vacuum conditions.
Question 5 of 9
Choose which one fo the following microorganisms is an example of obligate parasitism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: HIV. HIV is an example of obligate parasitism because it requires a host cell to replicate and survive. It cannot live independently outside of a host organism. In contrast, choices B, C, and D are not obligate parasites. E. Coli and S. Epidermidis are examples of commensal bacteria that can live in the host without causing harm. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can be both an opportunistic pathogen and a free-living organism, not strictly dependent on a host for survival.
Question 6 of 9
During examination of a 3-month old infant a pediatrician revealed that the baby's oral mucosa and tongue were covered with a thick white deposit. In the material taken from the affected site a bacteriologist revealed the presence of yeast fungi giving the reasons for suspecting a fungal infection which occurs most often in children of this age, namely:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Candidiasis. In infants, a thick white deposit on the oral mucosa and tongue is indicative of oral thrush, which is caused by the yeast fungus Candida. Infants are particularly susceptible to Candidiasis due to their developing immune systems and use of antibiotics. Favus (B) is a chronic fungal infection of the scalp caused by Trichophyton schoenleinii, typically not seen in infants. Epidermophytosis (C) refers to superficial fungal infections of the skin caused by dermatophytes, not commonly found in the oral cavity of infants. Actinomycosis (D) is a bacterial infection caused by Actinomyces species, not a fungal infection.
Question 7 of 9
A patient was admitted to the hospital on the 7th day of the disease with complaints of high temperature, headache, pain in the muscles, especially in calf muscles. Dermal integuments and scleras are icteric. There is hemorrhagic rash on the skin. Urine is bloody. The patient was fishing two weeks ago. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is A: Leptospirosis. Leptospirosis is caused by the spirochete Leptospira interrogans and is commonly transmitted through contact with water contaminated by animal urine, such as in this case of fishing. The symptoms described match those of leptospirosis, including high fever, headache, muscle pain, jaundice, hemorrhagic rash, and bloody urine. The calf muscle pain is a characteristic symptom of leptospirosis known as "Weil's disease." Yersiniosis (B) typically presents with abdominal symptoms, Salmonellosis (C) with gastrointestinal symptoms, and Brucellosis (D) with flu-like symptoms. Therefore, based on the symptoms and history provided, Leptospirosis is the most likely diagnosis.
Question 8 of 9
A 35-year-old patient has been admitted to a hospital for pain in the left sternoclavicular and knee joints, lumbar area. The disease has an acute character and is accompanied by fever up to 38oC. Objectively: the left sternoclavicular and knee joints are swollen and painful. In blood: WBCs - 9, 5x109/l, ESR - 40 mm/h, CRP - 1,5 millimole/l, fibrinogen - 4,8 g/l, uric acid - 0,28 millimole/l. Examination of the urethra scrapings reveals chlamydia. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The most likely diagnosis is Reiter's syndrome. This is suggested by the presence of joint pain, fever, elevated ESR and CRP levels, and chlamydia infection. Reiter's syndrome is a reactive arthritis triggered by an infection elsewhere in the body, such as chlamydia. The patient's symptoms of joint pain and swelling, along with the positive chlamydia test, support this diagnosis. Rheumatic arthritis (Choice B) is not associated with chlamydia infection, making it less likely. Gout (Choice C) typically presents with elevated uric acid levels, which are normal in this case. Bechterew's disease (Choice D) primarily affects the spine and sacroiliac joints, not the sternoclavicular and knee joints as seen in this patient.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following cell organelles contain digestive enzymes?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: peroxisomes. Peroxisomes contain enzymes involved in breaking down fatty acids and detoxifying harmful substances. They do not contain digestive enzymes. Lysosomes contain digestive enzymes involved in breaking down waste materials. Chloroplasts are involved in photosynthesis and do not contain digestive enzymes. Mitochondria are involved in energy production and do not contain digestive enzymes. Therefore, the correct answer is peroxisomes.