ATI RN
microbiology chapter 11 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is the main mechanism of passing the infection with Listeria monocytogenes from man to man:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, transplacental mechanism. Listeria monocytogenes can cross the placenta, infecting the fetus during pregnancy. This mechanism allows the bacteria to be transmitted from mother to baby in utero. Alimentary mechanism (A) involves ingestion of contaminated food, not direct transfer between individuals. Transmission (B) is a broad term that doesn't specify the specific route of Listeria transmission. Physical contact (D) is not a common mode of Listeria transmission compared to transplacental transmission in the case of maternal-fetal infection.
Question 2 of 9
A patient's blood culture revealed Gram-positive rods capable of spore formation. They were also motile and produced gas in nutrient broth. What is the causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clostridium perfringens. This bacterium fits all the characteristics mentioned: Gram-positive rods with spore formation, motile, and gas production in nutrient broth. Clostridium perfringens is known to cause gas gangrene, which aligns with the gas production in nutrient broth. Bacillus anthracis (B) causes anthrax and does not typically produce gas. Clostridium tetani (C) causes tetanus and does not form spores that are motile. Bacillus cereus (D) is a common cause of food poisoning and does not cause gas gangrene.
Question 3 of 9
What drug is more advisable for the patient with amebic dysentery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Metronidazole. Metronidazole is the drug of choice for amebic dysentery as it effectively targets the protozoa causing the infection. It has good tissue penetration and high efficacy against Entamoeba histolytica. Pyrantel (B) is used for nematode infections, not amebiasis. Levamisole (C) is an anthelmintic for roundworms and not effective against amoebas. Bicillin-5 (D) is a penicillin antibiotic, which is not indicated for treating amebic dysentery.
Question 4 of 9
Which bacteria are most commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: All of the above. Hospital-acquired infections can be caused by a variety of bacteria commonly found in healthcare settings. Staphylococcus aureus is a common cause of surgical site infections. Escherichia coli can cause urinary tract infections. Klebsiella pneumoniae is associated with pneumonia and bloodstream infections. Therefore, all three bacteria are frequently implicated in hospital-acquired infections due to their prevalence and ability to cause different types of infections in healthcare settings. Thus, the correct answer is D, as all of the listed bacteria are commonly associated with hospital-acquired infections.
Question 5 of 9
Infection caused by the genus Candida can be successfully treated with:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for why choice C (Nystatin) is the correct answer: 1. Nystatin is an antifungal medication specifically effective against Candida infections. 2. Candida is a type of fungus, not a bacteria targeted by penicillins (choice A) or cephalosporins (choice B). 3. Nystatin works by disrupting the fungal cell membrane, leading to its death. 4. Choice D (None of the above) is incorrect as Nystatin is a suitable treatment option for Candida infections.
Question 6 of 9
A veterenary attendant working at a cattle farm complains of joint pain, fever, indisposition and sweating at nighttime that he has been experiencing for a month. Giving the regard to such presentations and occupational history the doctor suspected brucellosis. What material taken from this patient is to be analyzed in a common microbiological laboratory?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blood serum. In suspected cases of brucellosis, blood serum is typically analyzed in a common microbiological laboratory. This is because the bacteria causing brucellosis, Brucella species, can be detected through serological tests in the blood serum. The presence of specific antibodies against Brucella in the serum confirms the diagnosis. Spinal fluid (choice B) would be analyzed in cases of suspected central nervous system infections, which are not typical for brucellosis. Vomit mass (choice C) is not a common sample for microbiological analysis in cases of brucellosis. Urine (choice D) is not the preferred sample for detecting Brucella antibodies; blood serum is the primary choice for serological testing.
Question 7 of 9
Examination of duodenal contents revealed some pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei and four pairs of flagella. There were two supporting filaments between the nuclei and a suctorial disc on the ventral side. What representative of protozoa was revealed in this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A (Lamblia): 1. Pyriform protozoa with twin nuclei, four pairs of flagella, and a suctorial disc match the characteristics of Giardia lamblia. 2. The presence of two supporting filaments between the nuclei is a unique feature of Giardia lamblia. 3. Giardia lamblia is known to infect the duodenum and cause symptoms such as diarrhea and abdominal pain. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Toxoplasma - Toxoplasma gondii is not characterized by four pairs of flagella or supporting filaments in the nuclei. C: Leishmania - Leishmania species do not typically have the described morphology or location in the duodenum. D: Intestinal trichomonad - Intestinal trichomonads do not exhibit the specific features mentioned in the question, such as twin nuclei and supporting filaments.
Question 8 of 9
Researchers of a bacteriological laboratory examine tinned meat for botulinic toxin. For this purpose a group of mice was injected with an extract of the material under examination and antitoxic antibotulinic serum of A, B, E types. A control group of mice was injected with the same extract but without antibotulinic serum. What serological reaction was applied?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutralization. In this experiment, the researchers used antitoxic antibotulinic serum of different types to neutralize the botulinic toxin in tinned meat extract injected into mice. Neutralization is the process of rendering a toxin harmless by combining it with specific antibodies. The purpose of injecting the antitoxic serum was to neutralize the toxin and prevent it from causing harm to the mice. This serological reaction of neutralization directly aligns with the objective of the experiment. Summary of other choices: B: Precipitation - Precipitation involves the formation of a visible insoluble complex when an antigen reacts with its corresponding antibody. This process was not described in the scenario. C: Complement binding - Complement binding involves the activation of the complement system by antigen-antibody complexes. This was not the main focus of the experiment described. D: Double immune diffusion - This technique is used to detect the presence of specific antigens or antibodies
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following characteristics of mumps infection is NOT true:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale: 1. Mumps is a contagious disease transmitted through air droplets and direct contact. 2. The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals. 3. Choice B is incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable. 4. Choice C is correct as mumps is highly contagious. 5. Choice D is accurate as mumps is transmitted via air droplets and direct contact. Summary: The correct answer is A because mumps can infect both humans and animals, making it untrue that only humans can be infected. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as mumps is vaccine-preventable, highly contagious, and transmitted through air droplets and direct contact.