ATI RN
high risk labor and delivery nclex questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which is the cervical exam that most indicates the use of misoprostol?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 cm dilated, 20% effaced, -3 station, firm and posterior. Misoprostol is commonly used for cervical ripening in preparation for labor induction. This choice indicates an unfavorable cervix, which would benefit from cervical ripening agents like misoprostol. The cervix is minimally dilated (1 cm), partially effaced (20%), high (-3 station), firm, and posterior. This profile suggests that the cervix is not yet ripe and may require assistance in ripening for labor induction. Choice B: 3-4 cm dilated, 50% effaced, -2 station, firm and midposition - this indicates a more favorable cervix for labor and would not typically require misoprostol for cervical ripening. Choice C: 5 cm dilated, 80% effaced, 0 station, soft and midposition - this indicates an even more favorable cervix for labor,
Question 2 of 5
The patient with which vaginal exam is most at risk for an umbilical cord prolapse?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because a patient who is 5 cm dilated, 60% effaced, and at -3 station is most at risk for umbilical cord prolapse. At this stage, the presenting part of the baby is relatively high in the pelvis, increasing the likelihood of the cord slipping past and becoming compressed against the cervix during contractions. This can lead to decreased blood flow and oxygen supply to the baby, posing a serious risk. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to result in cord prolapse due to the lower station of the baby in the pelvis, reducing the chance of cord compression.
Question 3 of 5
A gravida 2, para 1 is in active labor at 39 weeks gestation. Her cervical exam is 6 cm dilated, 60% effaced, and 0 station. An amniotomy is performed by the physician. The fluid is noted to be bloody and the fetal heart tones have decelerated to the 50s. What is the nurse’s next best action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Notify the operating team of emergent cesarean delivery. In this scenario, the presence of bloody amniotic fluid and fetal heart rate decelerations to the 50s indicate potential fetal distress. Given the critical nature of this situation, an emergent cesarean delivery should be considered to expedite delivery and prevent further compromise to the fetus. This decision is based on the principle of prioritizing fetal well-being in situations of acute distress. Options B, C, and D do not address the immediate need for prompt intervention to ensure the safety of the fetus in distress.
Question 4 of 5
When caring for a woman with a complete placenta previa, which finding should the nurse report to the physician?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: O2 saturation less than 95%. In placenta previa, there is a risk of maternal hemorrhage, which can lead to decreased oxygen delivery to tissues. Reporting low O2 saturation is crucial as it indicates potential hypoxia, necessitating immediate intervention. Choice A (BP of 95/60) may be within normal limits. Choice B (Temperature of 100.1°F) can indicate infection but is not directly related to placenta previa. Choice C (Urine output of 40 mL/hour) may reflect renal function but is not the priority in this situation.
Question 5 of 5
What is a direct influence on cervical dilation? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the positioning of the pregnant person affects the alignment of the baby's head in the pelvis, directly influencing cervical dilation. Proper positioning helps the baby apply pressure to the cervix, promoting dilation. In contrast, the strength of uterine contractions (B) affects labor progress but not cervical dilation specifically. The length of time since ruptured membranes (C) may increase infection risk but does not directly impact dilation. Fetal presentation (D) affects the descent of the baby, not cervical dilation.