Which is not useful to test brainstem death in suspected cervical spine injury?

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Pediatric Cardiovascular Disorders Nursing Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which is not useful to test brainstem death in suspected cervical spine injury?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In the context of assessing brainstem death in a suspected cervical spine injury, the Doll's-eyes reflex is not useful. This is because the Doll's-eyes reflex involves moving the head side to side to observe if the eyes move in the opposite direction, which can potentially exacerbate cervical spine injury in this scenario. The Pupillary light reflex (option A) is useful in assessing brainstem function as it tests the integrity of cranial nerves II and III, which are controlled by the brainstem. The Corneal reflex (option C) tests the integrity of cranial nerves V and VII, also controlled by the brainstem. The Oculo-vestibular reflex (option D) assesses the function of cranial nerve VIII and the brainstem's response to changes in head position. Educationally, understanding these reflexes and their implications in assessing brainstem function is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. It allows nurses to recognize signs of brainstem dysfunction early, providing timely interventions and improving patient outcomes. This knowledge reinforces the importance of comprehensive neurological assessments in pediatric patients with complex conditions.

Question 2 of 5

Inclisiran used in the treatment of dyslipidemia is chemically a

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this question, the correct answer is A) Synthetic RNA. Inclisiran is a novel therapeutic option for dyslipidemia that works by inhibiting production of the protein PCSK9, ultimately leading to decreased LDL cholesterol levels. A) Synthetic RNA is the correct answer because Inclisiran is a small interfering RNA (siRNA) molecule designed to target and inhibit the production of specific messenger RNA molecules involved in cholesterol metabolism. B) Synthetic histone, C) Synthetic DNA, and D) Synthetic mitochondria are incorrect because they are not directly related to the mechanism of action of Inclisiran in dyslipidemia treatment. Histones are proteins that DNA wraps around, DNA is the genetic material, and mitochondria are organelles responsible for energy production in cells. Understanding the chemical composition of medications used in pediatric cardiovascular disorders is crucial for nurses to ensure safe and effective administration. Knowledge of pharmacology allows healthcare professionals to make informed decisions, monitor for potential adverse effects, and provide patient education regarding medication management. In this case, knowing that Inclisiran is a synthetic RNA molecule helps nurses comprehend its mechanism of action and its role in managing dyslipidemia in pediatric patients.

Question 3 of 5

All of the following are minor criteria in the latest Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever in moderate-high risk population except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: In the latest Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever in a moderate-high-risk population, the minor criteria include options A, B, and D, making option C, ESR 230 mm/hour, the exception. A) Monoarthalgia is a minor criteria as it refers to pain in a single joint, commonly seen in rheumatic fever due to inflammation. B) Fever with a body temperature ≥ 38.5°C is also a minor criteria, indicating an elevated temperature which can be present in acute rheumatic fever. D) Prolonged PR interval is another minor criteria, reflecting cardiac conduction abnormalities seen in rheumatic fever due to myocardial inflammation. The correct answer, C) ESR 230 mm/hour, is not a minor criteria in the Revised Jones criteria for rheumatic fever. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is not included as a minor criteria in the latest guidelines for diagnosing rheumatic fever in a moderate-high-risk population. Understanding the criteria for diagnosing rheumatic fever is crucial for nurses caring for pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. It helps in early recognition and appropriate management of this condition to prevent complications like rheumatic heart disease. By knowing the major and minor criteria, nurses can play a vital role in improving outcomes for these patients through timely interventions.

Question 4 of 5

All the following statements about spontaneous coronary artery dissection are true, except

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Rationale: In this question about spontaneous coronary artery dissection (SCAD), the correct answer is C) Intra-coronary imaging shows 'accordion sign.' This statement is false because SCAD is typically associated with the visualization of a radiolucent, multiple lumen appearance on imaging rather than an 'accordion sign.' A) The statement that SCAD is more common in young females is true. SCAD predominantly affects younger women, especially those in the peripartum period or with few traditional cardiovascular risk factors. B) Proximal coronary involvement associated with immuno-inflammatory disease is a true statement. SCAD can involve any segment of the coronary artery, and an association with autoimmune conditions or inflammatory diseases has been reported. D) The statement that physical stress precipitates SCAD by causing an intimal tear is also true. Emotional stress or physical exertion has been identified as triggers for SCAD, leading to an intimal tear and subsequent arterial dissection. Educational Context: Understanding SCAD is crucial in pediatric nursing, especially in the context of cardiovascular disorders. By recognizing the unique characteristics of SCAD, nurses can provide timely and appropriate care to young patients presenting with this condition. Educating healthcare professionals about the distinct features of SCAD ensures accurate diagnosis and tailored treatment strategies for better patient outcomes.

Question 5 of 5

Drug combinations recommended to be avoided include all, except

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: In the context of pediatric cardiovascular disorders, it is crucial for nurses to have a comprehensive understanding of drug combinations to avoid to prevent adverse drug interactions and potential harm to pediatric patients. Option A) Metronidazole and Warfarin: This combination is known to increase the risk of bleeding due to the potential interaction between metronidazole, an antibiotic, and warfarin, an anticoagulant. Therefore, this combination should be avoided. Option B) Furosemide and Gentamicin: This combination is known to increase the risk of ototoxicity, particularly in pediatric patients. Both furosemide, a diuretic, and gentamicin, an antibiotic, can individually cause hearing loss, and when used together, the risk is heightened. Option C) Dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers and beta blockers: This combination is generally safe and is often used together in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders to manage conditions such as hypertension and certain heart conditions. Therefore, this combination does not need to be avoided. Option D) Omega-3 and Antiplatelets: Omega-3 supplements and antiplatelet medications, such as aspirin or clopidogrel, are often used together for their cardiovascular benefits. This combination is generally considered safe and effective in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. In conclusion, option D is the correct answer as the combination of Omega-3 and Antiplatelets is not recommended to be avoided in pediatric patients with cardiovascular disorders. The other options have known interactions or risks that make them combinations to be cautious about or avoid in pediatric patients. Understanding these drug combinations is essential for safe and effective pediatric nursing care in the management of cardiovascular disorders.

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