ATI RN
Pharmacology ATI Final Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is not one of the rights of medication administration?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The rights of medication administration include the right patient, right medication, right dose, right route, right time, and right documentation. However, "right attitude" is not one of the recognized rights of medication administration. While having a positive and professional attitude is important for healthcare providers, it is not specifically listed as a distinct right in medication administration protocols.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse administers furosemide (Lasix) to a client with edema. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide, a loop diuretic, treats edema by increasing urine output but depletes potassium via renal excretion, risking hypokalemia. This can cause muscle weakness or arrhythmias, critical in edema patients often with cardiac issues. Monitoring potassium closely ensures timely correction, preventing life-threatening complications. Sodium may decrease but is less urgent unless extreme. Calcium loss occurs but is rarer and less impactful acutely. Glucose isn't directly affected by furosemide. Potassium's rapid depletion aligns with the drug's mechanism'blocking the Na-K-2Cl cotransporter'making it the priority lab value. Regular checks (e.g., serum levels) guide supplementation, ensuring safety during diuresis, thus B is the nurse's focus for effective monitoring and intervention.
Question 3 of 9
A 63-year-old man with glaucoma maintained on a regimen of topical medications with an exacerbation of his symptoms. He complains of difficulty with his vision in both eyes and has headaches. Which of the following drugs is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Glaucoma involves elevated intraocular pressure (IOP), and this patient's exacerbation-vision difficulty and headaches-requires effective IOP reduction. Bimatoprost and Latanoprost are prostaglandin analogs, increasing outflow, but may not act fast enough for acute worsening. Pilocarpine , a muscarinic agonist, contracts the ciliary muscle, opening the trabecular meshwork, enhancing aqueous humor outflow, and rapidly lowering IOP-ideal for this scenario. Tetracycline is an antibiotic, irrelevant. Travoprost (E), another prostaglandin, is similar to A and B. Pilocarpine's direct action on outflow makes it most appropriate for urgent IOP control in open-angle or angle-closure glaucoma exacerbation. Its side effects (miosis, brow ache) are tolerable given the need for immediate relief, distinguishing it from slower-acting prostaglandins.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for a patient receiving enteral therapy. What is the most common complication of enteral therapy?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diarrhea is the most common complication of enteral therapy, often due to formula composition, administration rate, or bacterial contamination. Aspiration (A) is a serious but less common complication. Constipation (B) and muscle weakness (D) are not typically associated with enteral therapy.
Question 5 of 9
Ace Inhibitors often end in?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The majority of ACE inhibitors end in the suffix "-pril". ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat conditions such as hypertension, heart failure, and reducing the risk of heart attacks. The suffix "-pril" is a common way to identify drugs belonging to this class, making it easier for healthcare professionals and patients to recognize them. Examples of ACE inhibitors that end in "-pril" include captopril, enalapril, lisinopril, and ramipril.
Question 6 of 9
The following are subject to extensive presystemic (first-pass) metabolism:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Morphine undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism in the liver, which reduces its oral bioavailability significantly.
Question 7 of 9
A patient suffering from attention deficit hyperactivity disorder is placed on atomoxetine. A drug that has a similar mechanism of action to atomoxetine is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Atomoxetine treats ADHD by selectively inhibiting norepinephrine (NE) reuptake, increasing NE and dopamine in the prefrontal cortex to improve attention and impulse control, without stimulant properties. Methylphenidate blocks DA and NE reuptake but is a stimulant, differing in profile and abuse potential. Botulinum toxin affects neuromuscular junctions, unrelated to ADHD. Clonidine, an alpha-2 agonist, reduces NE release, calming hyperactivity but not via reuptake. Amitriptyline, a TCA, inhibits NE and 5HT reuptake, with broader effects and sedation, used off-label for ADHD in some cases. Its NE reuptake inhibition parallels atomoxetine's core mechanism, though it's less selective and not first-line. Among these, amitriptyline's shared NE focus makes it mechanistically closest.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is monitoring a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine (Neoral). The nurse observes an elevation in one of the client's vital signs and the client is complaining of sweating and
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Cyclosporine, a common immunosuppressive medication used in post-renal transplantation clients, can cause a range of adverse effects, including hypertension, nephrotoxicity, and electrolyte imbalances. One of the significant side effects of cyclosporine is causing an elevation in the pulse rate, also known as tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common side effect of cyclosporine due to its direct effects on the cardiovascular system. Therefore, in the context of a post-renal transplantation client taking cyclosporine, an elevation in pulse rate is the most likely vital sign to be increased. Sweatiness may be a response to the increased heart rate and may also be a side effect of cyclosporine. However, the primary vital sign affected by cyclosporine would be the pulse rate.
Question 9 of 9
Which common adverse effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) would be stressed by the nurse during patient discharge?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: SSRIs (e.g., sertraline) commonly cause weight gain and sexual dysfunction (e.g., delayed ejaculation), per patient reports-key for adherence. Drowsiness/coma are overdose risks, not common. Headache/nausea occur but fade. Dry mouth/urine retention are anticholinergic, not SSRI. These impact quality of life, needing emphasis.