ATI RN
Pediatric NCLEX Practice Quiz Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which is not a common cause of urticaria in children?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding the common causes of urticaria is essential for providing effective care to children. In this scenario, the correct answer is D) Contact allergens. Urticaria, also known as hives, is often triggered by contact with substances that a child is allergic to, such as certain plants, chemicals, or materials. Option A) Foods is a common cause of urticaria in children, especially with known food allergies like nuts, shellfish, or dairy. Option B) Drugs, including medications like antibiotics or NSAIDs, can also trigger urticaria in children who are sensitive to certain medications. Option C) Infections, such as viral or bacterial infections, can sometimes lead to urticaria as a reaction to the illness or the body's immune response. Educationally, understanding the different triggers of urticaria helps nurses and healthcare providers to assess and manage children with this condition effectively. By recognizing and eliminating potential allergens or triggers, healthcare professionals can help prevent future episodes of urticaria and provide appropriate treatment when necessary. It is crucial to educate parents and caregivers about identifying and avoiding common triggers to promote the well-being of children with urticaria.
Question 2 of 5
One of the following can cause unilateral dilated fixed pupil
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D) Tentorial herniation. Tentorial herniation is a serious condition where there is herniation or shifting of the brain tissue through an opening in the tough membrane that separates the brain from the structures of the posterior cranial fossa. This can lead to compression of the oculomotor nerve, resulting in unilateral dilated fixed pupil, which is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. Option A) Organophosphate poisoning typically presents with symptoms such as excessive salivation, lacrimation, urination, and defecation. It does not directly cause unilateral dilated fixed pupil. Option B) Anticholinergics cause pupillary constriction (miosis) rather than dilation. Option C) Narcotics can cause bilateral miosis but are not associated with unilateral dilated fixed pupil. Educationally, understanding the causes of unilateral dilated fixed pupil in pediatric patients is crucial for nurses preparing for the NCLEX exam. Recognizing this clinical manifestation can be a critical indicator of serious conditions like tentorial herniation that require immediate intervention. Nurses must be able to differentiate between various causes of pupillary abnormalities to provide prompt and appropriate care to pediatric patients in clinical settings.
Question 3 of 5
The dose of adrenaline IV for cardiac arrest is
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In pediatric resuscitation, the correct dose of adrenaline IV for cardiac arrest is 10 micrograms per kilogram of body weight. This dose is carefully calculated to provide the appropriate stimulation to the heart during a life-threatening situation. Option A is correct because it aligns with the current guidelines for pediatric advanced life support. Administering the correct dose of adrenaline is crucial in achieving return of spontaneous circulation in pediatric cardiac arrest. Option B (1000 micrograms/kg) is significantly higher than the recommended dose and can lead to serious adverse effects like hypertension, arrhythmias, and even cardiac arrest. Option C (10 milligrams/kg) is in milligrams instead of micrograms, making it 1000 times higher than the correct dose. Administering such a high dose can be fatal in pediatric patients. Option D (100 micrograms/kg) is also higher than the recommended dose, which can increase the risk of adverse effects without providing additional benefit in pediatric cardiac arrest situations. Educationally, understanding the correct dosage of medications in pediatric resuscitation is critical for nurses and healthcare providers working in pediatric settings. It ensures safe and effective care for pediatric patients in emergency situations and highlights the importance of precise medication calculations and administration.
Question 4 of 5
The minimum required duration for diagnosis of chronic hepatitis in a child with persistent elevation of transaminases is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In pediatric patients with persistent elevation of transaminases, the minimum required duration for diagnosing chronic hepatitis is typically around 6 months. This extended timeframe allows for a thorough assessment of liver function and repeated testing to confirm sustained elevation of liver enzymes, which is a key characteristic of chronic hepatitis. Option A) 9 months is too long of a duration for a definitive diagnosis of chronic hepatitis in a child. Waiting this long without intervention could potentially harm the child's liver function. Option B) 2 months is too short of a duration to establish a diagnosis of chronic hepatitis. Liver function tests need to be monitored over a longer period to confirm the persistence of elevated transaminases. Option C) 4 months may be insufficient to differentiate between an acute and chronic liver condition in a pediatric patient. Chronic hepatitis requires a longer duration of elevated transaminases for a definitive diagnosis. Educationally, understanding the diagnostic timeline for chronic hepatitis in children is crucial for healthcare providers working with pediatric patients. It emphasizes the importance of longitudinal monitoring, proper interpretation of liver function tests, and the need for timely intervention to manage liver conditions effectively. This knowledge ensures appropriate patient care and contributes to better health outcomes for pediatric populations.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is true regarding spontaneous bacterial peritonitis
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious infection that occurs in patients with ascites, most commonly associated with cirrhosis. The correct answer is D) Glucose less than 30 mg/dl. In SBP, the ascitic fluid typically has a low glucose level due to consumption by bacteria. This finding is a key diagnostic criterion for SBP. Option A) Total protein more than 1 gm is incorrect because in SBP, the total protein level is usually low, not high. Option B) Polymorphonuclear leukocytes less than 100 cells/mm3 is incorrect because SBP is characterized by a high number of polymorphonuclear leukocytes in the ascitic fluid (>250 cells/mm3). Option C) Culture result polymicrobial is incorrect because SBP is usually caused by a single organism, most commonly E. coli or Klebsiella. Educationally, understanding the diagnostic criteria for SBP is crucial for healthcare providers caring for patients with liver disease. Recognizing the signs and symptoms of SBP early on can lead to prompt treatment, reducing morbidity and mortality in this vulnerable patient population. Nurses and other healthcare professionals must be able to interpret ascitic fluid analysis results accurately to provide appropriate care for these patients.