ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is likely the most common recollection from a patie nt who required endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Difficulty communicating. When a patient undergoes endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation, they are unable to speak normally. This leads to frustration and anxiety due to the inability to communicate effectively with healthcare providers and loved ones. The lack of communication can also impact their emotional well-being. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as the most common recollection because patients might not remember feeling uncomfortable, experiencing pain, or having sleep disruption during sedation and ventilation. Additionally, the inability to communicate is a primary concern for patients in this situation.
Question 2 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient receiving intravenous ibup rofen for pain management. The nurse recognizes which laboratory assessment to be a possaibbirlbe.c soimd/ete set ffect of the ibuprofen?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine. Ibuprofen can cause kidney damage, leading to elevated creatinine levels. This is because ibuprofen is metabolized in the kidneys, and prolonged use can impair kidney function. Elevated platelet count (B), elevated white blood count (C), and low liver enzymes (D) are not typically associated with ibuprofen use. Platelet count and white blood count are more related to inflammation or infection, while low liver enzymes are not a common side effect of ibuprofen.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following are physiological effects of positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) used in the treatment of acute respiratory distress syndrom e (ARDS)? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increase functional residual capacity. Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) helps increase the functional residual capacity by keeping the alveoli open at the end of expiration. This prevents alveolar collapse, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and enhances oxygenation. B: Prevent collapse of unstable alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP actually helps prevent the collapse of all alveoli, not just unstable ones. C: Improve arterial oxygenation - This is partially correct, but the primary mechanism through which PEEP improves oxygenation is by increasing functional residual capacity. D: Open collapsed alveoli - This is incorrect because PEEP helps prevent alveolar collapse rather than actively opening already collapsed alveoli.
Question 4 of 9
Which of the following factors predispose the critically ill patient to pain and anxiety? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inability to communicate. Critically ill patients often experience pain and anxiety due to their inability to effectively communicate their needs and discomfort. This can lead to unaddressed pain and increased anxiety levels. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while invasive procedures, monitoring devices, and preexisting conditions can contribute to pain and anxiety in critically ill patients, they are not factors that directly predispose patients to these issues. It is the lack of communication that significantly hinders the ability to address and manage pain and anxiety effectively in these patients.
Question 5 of 9
A mode of pressure-targeted ventilation that provides posiatbivirbe. cporme/tsessut re to decrease the workload of spontaneous breathing through what action by the endotracheal tube?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pressure support ventilation. This mode delivers a set pressure to support each spontaneous breath, decreasing the workload of breathing. Pressure support ventilation assists the patient's inspiratory efforts without providing a set tidal volume like in volume-targeted ventilation. Continuous positive airway pressure (Choice A) maintains a constant level of positive pressure throughout the respiratory cycle but does not actively support spontaneous breathing efforts. Positive end-expiratory pressure (Choice B) maintains positive pressure at the end of expiration to prevent alveolar collapse but does not directly support spontaneous breathing. T-piece adapter (Choice D) is a weaning device that allows the patient to breathe spontaneously without ventilatory support.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient who has an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP) following a massive heart attack. When assessing the patient, the nurse notices blood backing up into the IABP catheter. In which order should the nurse take the following actions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Ensuring the IABP console is turned off is crucial to prevent further complications and stop potential harm to the patient. 2. By turning off the IABP console, the nurse can halt the pumping action, allowing assessment of the situation without interference. 3. This action takes priority over other steps as it addresses the immediate issue of blood backing up into the IABP catheter. 4. Once the console is turned off, the nurse can proceed with assessing the patient's vital signs, notifying the healthcare provider, and obtaining supplies if needed. Summary of Incorrect Choices: - Option B: Assessing vital signs and orientation is important, but addressing the malfunction of the IABP takes precedence to prevent harm. - Option C: Notifying the healthcare provider is necessary, but first, the immediate issue of blood backing up into the catheter must be addressed. - Option D: Obtaining supplies for a new catheter is premature without first addressing
Question 7 of 9
A 10-year-old female patient in ICU receiving chemotherapy has requested that her dog be allowed to visit her. She is currently sharing a room with another patient. The nurse knows that the hospital does allow for pet visits with owners, but has strict guidelines. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to be permitted?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it follows the hospital's guidelines for pet visits. It allows the dog to be brought in on a leash, which ensures control and safety during the visit. The 20-minute duration is appropriate to limit potential stress on the patient and other individuals in the room. Additionally, having the father bring the dog in maintains consistency with the hospital's policy of pet visits with owners. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not adhere to the hospital's guidelines. Choice B allows for an overnight stay, which is typically not permitted due to potential disruptions and hygiene concerns. Choice C mentions vaccinations but overlooks other important factors like leash control and visit duration. Choice D suggests waiting until the girl is moved to a private room, which may not align with the hospital's policy of allowing pet visits with owners.
Question 8 of 9
A nurse is caring for an elderly man recently admitted to the ICU following a stroke. She assesses his cognitive function using a new cognitive assessment test she learned about in a recent article in a nursing journal. She then brings a cup of water and a straw to the patient because she observes that his lips are dry. Later, she has the patient sit in a wheelchair and takes him to have some blood tests performed. He objects at first, saying that he can walk on his own, but the nurse explains that it is hospital policy to use the wheelchair. That evening, she recognizes signs of an imminent stroke in the patient and immediately pages the physician. Which action taken by the nurse is the best example of evidence-based practice?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Recognizing signs of an imminent stroke and paging the physician. This action exemplifies evidence-based practice as it involves timely identification of a critical medical condition based on clinical assessment and prompt communication with the physician for further intervention. This aligns with the principles of evidence-based practice, which emphasize the integration of best available evidence with clinical expertise and patient values. The other choices are incorrect: A: Giving the patient a cup of water - While providing hydration is important for patient care, it does not demonstrate evidence-based practice in this scenario. B: Transferring the patient in a wheelchair - Although using a wheelchair may be hospital policy, it does not directly relate to evidence-based practice in this context. D: Using the cognitive assessment test - While assessing cognitive function is essential, it does not directly address the immediate medical needs of the patient as recognizing signs of an imminent stroke does.
Question 9 of 9
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous re spirations are 12 breaths/min. The patient receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and now respi rations decrease to 4 breaths/min. What adjustments may need to be made to the patient’s ve ntilator settings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern. A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.