ATI RN
Critical Care Nursing Cardiac Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is likely the most common recollection from a patie nt who required endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Difficulty communicating. When a patient undergoes endotracheal intubation and mechanical ventilation, they are unable to speak normally. This leads to frustration and anxiety due to the inability to communicate effectively with healthcare providers and loved ones. The lack of communication can also impact their emotional well-being. Choices B, C, and D are less likely as the most common recollection because patients might not remember feeling uncomfortable, experiencing pain, or having sleep disruption during sedation and ventilation. Additionally, the inability to communicate is a primary concern for patients in this situation.
Question 2 of 9
What term is used to describe a specific request made by a competent person that directs medical care related to life-prolonging procedures if the pa tient loses capacity to make decisions?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Living will. A living will is a legal document that outlines a person's preferences for medical treatment if they become unable to communicate their wishes. It specifically addresses life-prolonging procedures. Option A, Do not resuscitate order, is a specific directive to not perform CPR in case of cardiac arrest, not a comprehensive medical care directive. Option B, Healthcare proxy, is a person designated to make medical decisions on behalf of a patient who is unable to do so, not the specific directive itself. Option C, Informed consent, refers to the process of obtaining permission from a patient before conducting a healthcare intervention, not a directive for life-prolonging procedures.
Question 3 of 9
A patient with end-stage heart failure is experiencing consaibdirebr.caobmle/te dsty spnea. What is the appropriate pharmacological management of this symptom ?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Administration of morphine, 5 mg IV bolus, and initiation of a continuous morphine infusion. Morphine is the preferred pharmacological management for severe dyspnea in end-stage heart failure due to its potent analgesic and anxiolytic properties. Step-by-step rationale: 1. Morphine is a potent opioid that helps relieve dyspnea by reducing anxiety, decreasing respiratory drive, and improving overall comfort. 2. The initial IV bolus of 5 mg provides rapid relief of dyspnea. 3. Initiating a continuous morphine infusion ensures sustained relief of dyspnea. 4. Midazolam (choice A) is a benzodiazepine used for sedation and anxiety, but it is not the first-line treatment for dyspnea in this scenario. 5. Increasing the midazolam (choice C) or morphine (choice D) infusions by 100% dose increments hourly is not appropriate as
Question 4 of 9
A patient is being mechanically ventilated in the synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation mode at a rate of 4 breaths/min. Spontaneous re spirations are 12 breaths/min. The patient receives a dose of morphine sulfate, and now respi rations decrease to 4 breaths/min. What adjustments may need to be made to the patient’s ve ntilator settings?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Change to assist/control ventilation at a rate of 4 breaths/min. When the patient's spontaneous respirations decrease to match the ventilator rate, it indicates that the patient is not actively participating in breathing. Changing to assist/control ventilation allows the patient to trigger breaths when they desire, ensuring a more synchronized and comfortable breathing pattern. A: Adding PEEP may help improve oxygenation but is not directly related to the issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. B: Adding pressure support provides additional support during inspiration but does not address the underlying issue of decreased spontaneous respirations. D: Increasing the SIMV respiratory rate would not address the patient's decreased spontaneous respirations and could potentially lead to overventilation.
Question 5 of 9
The nurse is caring for a patient in the critical care unit whaobi,r ba.cfotemr/ tebset ing declared brain dead, is being managed by the OPO transplant coordinator. Thir ty minutes into the shift, assessment by the nurse includes a blood pressure 75/50 mm Hg, hear t rate 85 beats/min, and respiratory rate 12 breaths/min via assist/control ventilation. The oxygen saturation (SpO ) is 99% and 2 core temperature 93.8° F. Which primary care provider ord er should the nurse implement first?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Begin phenylephrine (Neo-Synephrine) for systolic BP < 90 mm Hg. The nurse should implement this order first because the patient's low blood pressure (75/50 mm Hg) indicates hypotension, which can lead to inadequate perfusion to vital organs. Phenylephrine is a vasoconstrictor that can help increase the patient's blood pressure and improve perfusion. It is crucial to address hypotension promptly to prevent further complications. Choice A is incorrect because maintaining the patient's temperature above 96.8°F is not the most urgent concern in this scenario. Choice B is incorrect as obtaining a basic metabolic panel every 4 hours is not the immediate priority when the patient is experiencing hypotension. Choice D is incorrect as drawing arterial blood gas every 4 hours is not the most urgent intervention needed to address the patient's low blood pressure.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse understands that many strategies are available to address ethical issues that may occur; these strategies include which of the following? (Select all that apply.)
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Ethics consultation services. These services involve seeking guidance from experts to navigate complex ethical dilemmas. They provide in-depth analysis and recommendations based on ethical principles, helping healthcare professionals make informed decisions. Change-of-shift report updates (A) are essential for continuity of care but do not directly address ethical issues. Formal multiprofessional ethics committees (C) are valuable for reviewing policies and addressing systemic ethical concerns but may not be readily available for immediate guidance. Pastoral care services (D) offer spiritual support but may not always have the expertise to handle complex ethical dilemmas. Ethics consultation services (B) are the most suitable option for addressing specific ethical issues promptly and effectively.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse admits a terminally ill patient to the hospital. What is the first action that the nurse should complete when planning this patient care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because determining the patient's wishes regarding end-of-life care is crucial in providing patient-centered care and ensuring that the patient's preferences are respected. By understanding the patient's preferences, healthcare providers can tailor the care plan to align with the patient's values and goals. This helps in promoting autonomy, dignity, and quality of life for the patient. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because although addressing family issues, discussing grief, and encouraging the patient to express fears are important aspects of caring for a terminally ill patient, they are not the first action that should be completed. Prioritizing the patient's wishes ensures that the care plan is centered around the patient's needs and preferences, which is essential in providing holistic and patient-centered care.
Question 8 of 9
A hospice patient develops a pressure ulcer despite proper repositioning. What should the nurse include in the care plan?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because implementing more aggressive wound care strategies is essential for managing pressure ulcers effectively. This includes proper wound cleaning, debridement, and dressing changes to promote healing. Adequate hydration and nutrition (choice B) are important but may not directly address the pressure ulcer. Discussing prognosis and expected outcomes (choice C) is important but may not directly impact wound healing. Encouraging increased physical activity (choice D) may be contraindicated due to the patient's condition.
Question 9 of 9
Renin plays a role in blood pressure regulation by
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because renin activates the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone cascade, which ultimately leads to vasoconstriction, increased blood pressure, and aldosterone release to increase sodium and water reabsorption. Renin does not suppress angiotensin production (B), decrease sodium reabsorption (C), or inhibit aldosterone release (D), as these actions would counteract its role in blood pressure regulation.