ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice Questions Code Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is an example of an individual successfully completing Erikson's"school age" stage of development?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Erikson's "school age" stage focuses on developing a sense of industry and competence. By trying out for cheerleading, the 11-year-old girl is demonstrating initiative and feeling accomplished, which aligns with this stage. Choice A is incorrect as it relates more to peer pressure and moral development. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on social interaction skills, not specifically related to Erikson's stage. Choice C is incorrect as it pertains to independent play, not directly linked to Erikson's concept of industry and competence. Overall, D best exemplifies successful completion of the "school age" stage.
Question 2 of 9
A parent says, "My 2-year-old child refuses toilet training and shouts „No!‟ when given directions. What do you think is wrong?" Select the nurse's best reply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "This is normal for your child's age. The child is striving for independence." Rationale: 1. At age 2, children often assert their independence by resisting authority, which includes refusing toilet training and saying "No." 2. This behavior is typical for toddlers and part of their normal developmental stage. 3. Pressuring the child or imposing firmer control may lead to power struggles and negative outcomes. 4. Recognizing and understanding the child's need for autonomy is crucial in responding effectively to their behavior. Other choices are incorrect: A: "Your child needs firmer control. It is important to set limits now." - This approach may lead to power struggles and may not address the underlying developmental stage the child is going through. C: "There may be developmental problems. Most children are toilet trained by age 2." - Making assumptions about developmental problems based on a single behavior is premature and may cause unnecessary concern for the parent. D: "Some undesirable
Question 3 of 9
Which entry in the medical record best meets the requirement for problem-oriented charting?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because it follows the SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan) format for problem-oriented charting. In choice B, the subjective information is the patient's statement, the objective information includes the observed behavior, assessment is the diagnosis of auditory hallucinations, and the plan includes offering medication and the outcome. Choice A lacks a clear assessment and plan, focusing more on the intervention and outcome. Choice C does not clearly link the assessment to the plan and lacks details in the subjective and objective sections. Choice D does not provide a clear separation between subjective and objective information and lacks a formal assessment section.
Question 4 of 9
A group of nursing students is reviewing information about stress and coping in children. The students demonstrate a need for additional study when they identify which of the following as a stressful experience for a child?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Social support. Children benefit from social support as it helps them cope with stress. The death of a pet, chronic illness, and racial discrimination are all recognized as stressful experiences for children. Social support, on the other hand, is not a stressor but rather a protective factor that can help children navigate stressful situations. Thus, the nursing students need additional study to understand the importance of social support in helping children cope with stress effectively.
Question 5 of 9
Two staff nurses applied for a charge nurse position. After the promotion was announced, the nurse who was not promoted said, "The nurse manager had a headache the day I was interviewe" Which defense mechanism is evident?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Projection. This defense mechanism involves attributing one's own unacceptable feelings or traits to others. In this scenario, the nurse is projecting her disappointment onto the nurse manager by suggesting that the manager's headache influenced the decision. This allows the nurse to avoid taking responsibility for not getting the promotion. A: Introjection involves internalizing external beliefs or values, which is not evident in this scenario. B: Conversion involves converting psychological distress into physical symptoms, which is not relevant to the situation. D: Splitting involves viewing people as all good or all bad, which is not demonstrated in this case.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse is caring for several hospitalized clients with anorexia nervosa. The nurse would be especially alert for which of the following if noted in the clients' histories?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depression. Clients with anorexia nervosa often experience co-morbid conditions like depression due to the psychological and emotional impact of the disorder. Depression can exacerbate anorexic behaviors and hinder recovery. Paranoia (A), primary insomnia (B), and aggression (D) are not typically associated with anorexia nervosa. Paranoia is more commonly linked to conditions like schizophrenia, primary insomnia is a sleep disorder, and aggression may occur in various psychiatric disorders but is not a hallmark of anorexia nervosa.
Question 7 of 9
What therapy environment permits the nurse to assess the client while they are exposed to different relationships and behaviors?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Milieu therapy is the correct answer as it involves creating a therapeutic environment where clients interact with others, allowing nurses to observe their behaviors and relationships. This setting offers a holistic approach to assessment, considering how clients engage in various interactions. Electrical impulse therapy (B) is not focused on observing relationships and behaviors. Talk therapy (C) and individual therapy (D) primarily involve one-on-one interactions, limiting the nurse's ability to assess clients in diverse relationship contexts. Milieu therapy stands out for its comprehensive assessment opportunities within a dynamic social environment.
Question 8 of 9
A citizen at a community health fair asks the nurse, 'What is the most prevalent mental disorder in the United States?' Select the nurse's correct response.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Alzheimer's disease. This is because Alzheimer's disease is the most prevalent mental disorder in the United States, affecting a large number of individuals, especially in older age groups. Schizophrenia (A) and bipolar disorder (B) are serious mental illnesses, but they are less common than Alzheimer's disease. Dissociative fugue (C) is a rare disorder characterized by amnesia and sudden travel away from home. While all these disorders are significant, Alzheimer's disease stands out as the most prevalent in the U.S. based on epidemiological data.
Question 9 of 9
After teaching a group of students about mental health and mental illness, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the group identifies which of the following as reflecting mental disorders?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because an alteration in mood or thinking is a key characteristic of mental disorders. This indicates a disruption in normal cognitive or emotional processes, which is a defining feature of mental illnesses. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically address the core symptoms of mental disorders. Capacity to interact with others (A) and ability to deal with stress (B) are important aspects of mental health but do not necessarily indicate the presence of a mental disorder. Lack of impaired functioning (D) does not capture the complexity of mental disorders, as individuals can still experience mental health issues even if they are able to function in certain areas of their life.