ATI RN
ATI Community Health Nursing Ch 7 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which is an example of a policy-level intervention in community health?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, advocating for legislative changes. Policy-level interventions involve changing laws or regulations to improve community health outcomes. Advocating for legislative changes can address systemic issues and create sustainable improvements. Implementing new treatment protocols (A) is a clinical intervention. Educating individuals about healthy behaviors (B) is a behavior-level intervention. Establishing community health clinics (C) is a service-level intervention.
Question 2 of 9
Paralysis of all or part of the trunk, legs, and pelvic organs is referred to as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Paraplegia. Paraplegia refers to the paralysis of the lower half of the body, including both legs and often the trunk and pelvic organs. This term specifically indicates paralysis below the waist. Hemiplegia (A) refers to paralysis on one side of the body, not the trunk and legs. Tetraplegia (B) is paralysis of all four limbs and the trunk, not specifically the trunk, legs, and pelvic organs. Hemiparesis (D) is weakness on one side of the body, not a complete paralysis of the trunk, legs, and pelvic organs.
Question 3 of 9
What procedure is performed prior to a blood transfusion to detect incompatibilities?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Grouping and crossmatching. This procedure involves determining the patient's blood type (grouping) and testing for compatibility with the donor blood (crossmatching). It ensures that the recipient receives compatible blood, minimizing the risk of transfusion reactions. B: Complete blood count is not specific to detecting incompatibilities for transfusions. C: D-dimer test is used to detect blood clotting disorders, not blood transfusion incompatibilities. D: Blood clotting test assesses the ability of blood to clot, not compatibility for transfusions.
Question 4 of 9
Which action represents a primary prevention strategy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, administering vaccines to prevent disease. This is a primary prevention strategy as it aims to prevent the occurrence of disease before it occurs. Vaccines stimulate the immune system to produce an immune response against specific pathogens, reducing the risk of infection and transmission. Educating children on handwashing (A) is important for hygiene but falls under health promotion, not primary prevention. Screening for early signs of disease (C) is secondary prevention, aiming to detect disease at an early stage to prevent complications. Providing treatment for acute illnesses (D) is tertiary prevention, focusing on managing and minimizing the impact of existing conditions.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following is not a therapeutic indication of bone marrow puncture?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Bone marrow puncture is not indicated for analgesia but for diagnostic purposes. 2. Antibiotics may be indicated to prevent infection during the procedure. 3. Anaesthesia may be used to minimize pain and discomfort. 4. Inflammation is a condition that may necessitate bone marrow puncture for diagnosis. Therefore, choice A is the correct answer as it does not align with the therapeutic indications of bone marrow puncture.
Question 6 of 9
Which action is an example of primary prevention in community health?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease before it occurs. Administering immunizations is a direct way to prevent the onset of infectious diseases, making it a clear example of primary prevention. Immunizations boost immunity and reduce the risk of contracting specific diseases. Providing treatment for diseases (choice B) occurs after the disease has already developed, making it a secondary prevention strategy. Educating about healthy lifestyles (choice C) and conducting health screenings (choice D) are important but fall under health promotion and early detection (secondary prevention) rather than primary prevention.
Question 7 of 9
When assessing a community to determine its health needs, which data would be most useful?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Morbidity and mortality data. This data provides direct information on the health status of the community by indicating the prevalence of diseases and deaths. It helps identify major health issues, prioritize interventions, and allocate resources effectively. Demographic data (A) provides information on population characteristics but does not directly reflect health needs. Health behavior data (B) offers insights into lifestyle choices but may not capture underlying health conditions. Environmental data (C) focuses on external factors impacting health, which are important but not as direct in indicating community health needs as morbidity and mortality data.
Question 8 of 9
Which factor is most closely linked to health disparities?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Access to health care. Health disparities are predominantly influenced by unequal access to healthcare services, which can lead to differences in health outcomes among various populations. Limited access to healthcare can result in delayed or inadequate treatment, leading to poorer health outcomes. Lifestyle choices (B) and environmental factors (C) can contribute to health disparities, but access to healthcare plays a more significant role. Social support (D) is important for overall well-being but is not as closely linked to health disparities as access to healthcare.
Question 9 of 9
Which statement is incorrect regarding an informed consent signed by a patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it is incorrect to state that the nurse is responsible for obtaining the consent for surgery. Informed consent for surgery is typically obtained by the physician performing the procedure, not the nurse. Nurses can assist in the process by providing information and clarifying details, but ultimately it is the physician's responsibility to ensure the patient understands the procedure and consents to it. Choice B is correct as minors under 18 years of age generally require a parent or legal guardian to sign a consent form on their behalf. Choice C is correct as nurses can witness the client signing the consent form as a part of the process. Choice D is also correct as it is indeed the nurse's responsibility to ensure the patient has been educated by the physician before obtaining informed consent.