Which is an correct statement regarding treatment of a torted appendix testis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Torted appendix testis needs only analgesia self-limiting, resolves with pain control (e.g., NSAIDs), correct. Antibiotics are unnecessary no infection. Surgery isn't mandatory rarely needed. Local anesthetic isn't standard impractical. Analgesia's sufficiency distinguishes it, key to conservative management, unlike infection, surgical, or invasive errors.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Aiming for pH <6 isn't treatment for rhabdomyolysis ATN alkalinization (pH >6.5) prevents myoglobin casts, incorrect. Hyperkalemia correction cardiac safety, true. Saline for hypovolemia restores perfusion, correct. Diuretics (furosemide/mannitol) flush tubules standard. Acidic goal distinguishes the error, key to myoglobin management, unlike supportive principles.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A 1 mm ureteral stone most likely impacts at the vesico-ureteric junction (VUJ) narrowest point (2-3 mm), distal bottleneck. Pelvi-ureteric junction (PUJ) and pelvic brim catch larger stones less for 1 mm. Bladder orifice is post-ureter irrelevant. VUJ's constriction distinguishes it, key to small stone obstruction, unlike proximal or irrelevant sites.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Treating with cefixime/azithromycin (STD regimen) and discharging is least indicated acute scrotal pain suggests torsion, a surgical emergency, not epididymitis. Radionuclide scan/Doppler confirm torsion useful. Manual detorsion relieves attemptable. Urinalysis rules out infection relevant. Presumptive antibiotics distinguish the error, key to missing torsion, unlike diagnostic or therapeutic steps.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: E. coli is the most common uncomplicated UTI organism ~80% (e.g., fimbriae adhesion), community-acquired leader. Chlamydia causes urethritis not bladder. Klebsiella/Proteus are less frequent complicated UTIs. E. coli's dominance distinguishes it, key to UTI microbiology, unlike STD or secondary pathogens.