ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrimp and tomatoes. Shrimp is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Tomatoes are rich in Vitamin C, which helps enhance iron absorption. Cheese, bananas, lobster, squash, lamb, and peaches do not provide significant amounts of iron essential for an anemic client. The combination of shrimp and tomatoes offers a balanced approach to increase iron levels effectively.
Question 2 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is being discharged with a prescription for aspirin (Ecotrin), 600mg PO every 6 hours. The nurse should instruct the client to notify the physician if which adverse drug reaction occurs?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tinnitus. Aspirin can cause tinnitus (ringing in the ears) as an adverse drug reaction, which can indicate potential ototoxicity. Tinnitus is an important side effect that should be reported promptly to the physician to prevent further auditory complications. Dysuria (A), leg cramps (C), and constipation (D) are not typically associated with aspirin use and are less urgent compared to tinnitus. Reporting these side effects may still be necessary but are not as critical as tinnitus in this scenario.
Question 3 of 9
Just as the nurse was entering the room, the patient who was sitting on his chair begins to have a seizure. Which of the following must the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ease the patient to the floor. This is the first step because it helps prevent injury during a seizure. Lowering the patient to the floor prevents falls and protects the patient's head. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B can cause injury or obstruct the airway, choice C involves unnecessary movement, and choice D can lead to further harm or injury. It is crucial to prioritize safety and prevent harm during a seizure episode.
Question 4 of 9
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bodily fluids and excretions (urine, feces, vomitus) can become contaminated with radiation from the implant. Therefore, they should be considered highly radioactive and handled appropriately. Choice B is incorrect because the client may remain radioactive for a longer period than 10 days post-implant removal. Choice C is incorrect because soiled linens should be handled according to radiation safety protocols and removed promptly. Choice D is incorrect because bed rest is not necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider; the client should be encouraged to move around as tolerated to prevent complications.
Question 5 of 9
When instructing the client diagnosed with hyperparathyroidism about diet, the nurse should stress the importance of which of the following?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Restricting sodium. In hyperparathyroidism, there is an excess of parathyroid hormone leading to increased calcium levels. Sodium can worsen calcium excretion, exacerbating the condition. Restricting sodium can help reduce calcium loss. A: Restricting fluids is not necessary unless the client has kidney issues. B: Forcing fluids may not be beneficial and can lead to fluid overload. D: Restricting potassium is not typically necessary unless the client has kidney issues.
Question 6 of 9
When evaluating a client's response to fluid replacement therapy, the observation that indicates adequate tissue perfusion to vital organ is;
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Urinary output of 30 ml in an hour. Adequate tissue perfusion is best indicated by a sufficient urinary output, as it demonstrates proper kidney perfusion and function. A low urinary output may suggest inadequate perfusion. Explanation for other choices: B: Central venous pressure reading of 2 cm H20 is not a reliable indicator of tissue perfusion to vital organs. C: Pulse rates alone are not enough to indicate tissue perfusion as they can be influenced by various factors. D: Blood pressure readings alone may not accurately reflect tissue perfusion, especially in the context of fluid replacement therapy.
Question 7 of 9
Which of the ff. statements would the nurse understand is true when assessing normal auditory acuity using the Rinne test?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because in a normal Rinne test, air conduction is heard longer than bone conduction in both ears. This is due to the fact that air conduction involves the transmission of sound waves through the external auditory canal, middle ear, and inner ear, which is more efficient than bone conduction where the sound waves are transmitted directly to the inner ear through the bones of the skull. Therefore, when the tuning fork is placed on the mastoid bone (bone conduction) and then moved next to the ear (air conduction), the sound should be heard longer through air conduction. Choice A is incorrect because normal auditory acuity does not necessarily mean equal perception in both ears. Choice C is incorrect as bone conduction should be heard shorter than air conduction in a normal Rinne test. Choice D is incorrect as the test does not determine which ear perceives sound better, but rather the difference in duration between air and bone conduction.
Question 8 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 9 of 9
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking piroxicam with food or an oral antacid can help reduce GI irritation as it can protect the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Spacing the administration every 4 hours (choice A) may not necessarily prevent GI upset. Using the drug for a short time only (choice B) may not address the immediate concern of GI irritation. Decreasing the piroxicam dosage (choice C) may not be necessary if taking it with food or an antacid can effectively alleviate the GI upset.