ATI RN
Test Bank Pharmacology and the Nursing Process Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which iron-rich foods should the nurse encourage an anemic client requiring iron therapy to eat?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Shrimp and tomatoes. Shrimp is a good source of heme iron, which is more easily absorbed by the body compared to non-heme iron found in plant-based foods. Tomatoes are rich in Vitamin C, which helps enhance iron absorption. Cheese, bananas, lobster, squash, lamb, and peaches do not provide significant amounts of iron essential for an anemic client. The combination of shrimp and tomatoes offers a balanced approach to increase iron levels effectively.
Question 2 of 9
The client with rheumatoid arthritis reports GI irritation after taking piroxicam (Feldene). To prevent GI upset, the nurse should provide which instruction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Taking piroxicam with food or an oral antacid can help reduce GI irritation as it can protect the stomach lining. Piroxicam is known to cause GI upset due to its effects on prostaglandin synthesis. Spacing the administration every 4 hours (choice A) may not necessarily prevent GI upset. Using the drug for a short time only (choice B) may not address the immediate concern of GI irritation. Decreasing the piroxicam dosage (choice C) may not be necessary if taking it with food or an antacid can effectively alleviate the GI upset.
Question 3 of 9
The nurse understands that which of the ff. is a side effect most likely to be reported by patients receiving enalapril maleate (Vasotec)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Cough. Enalapril is an ACE inhibitor, and a common side effect is a dry, persistent cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. This is a distinctive side effect of ACE inhibitors and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Acne (A), diarrhea (B), and heartburn (D) are not commonly associated with enalapril use and are less likely side effects.
Question 4 of 9
A client receives a sealed radiation implant to treat cervical cancer. When caring for this client, the nurse should:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because bodily fluids and excretions (urine, feces, vomitus) can become contaminated with radiation from the implant. Therefore, they should be considered highly radioactive and handled appropriately. Choice B is incorrect because the client may remain radioactive for a longer period than 10 days post-implant removal. Choice C is incorrect because soiled linens should be handled according to radiation safety protocols and removed promptly. Choice D is incorrect because bed rest is not necessary unless specifically indicated by the healthcare provider; the client should be encouraged to move around as tolerated to prevent complications.
Question 5 of 9
A client has a routine Papanicolaou (Pap) test during a yearly gynecologic examination. The result reveals a class V finding. What should the nurse tell the client about this finding?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a class V Pap test finding indicates severe abnormalities, such as high-grade dysplasia or carcinoma in situ. Therefore, the nurse should instruct the client to undergo a biopsy as soon as possible to confirm the diagnosis and initiate appropriate treatment promptly. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a class V result is not normal and requires immediate follow-up, rather than waiting or repeating the Pap test at a later time.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the ff actions should the nurse perform to monitor for electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in a client with a neurologic deficit?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Measure intake and output. Monitoring intake and output is crucial in assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration in clients with neurologic deficits. Electrolyte imbalances can lead to neurological complications, so accurate monitoring is essential. Mini-mental status and Glasgow Coma scale are assessments of mental status, not electrolyte balance. Vital signs can provide some information, but intake and output measurement is more specific for assessing electrolyte imbalances and dehydration.
Question 7 of 9
A patient is admitted for a splenectomy. Why is an injection of Vit. K ordered before surgery?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step 1: Vitamin K is essential for the synthesis of clotting factors in the liver. Step 2: A splenectomy increases the risk of bleeding due to decreased platelet sequestration. Step 3: Preoperative Vitamin K injection helps correct any clotting deficiencies. Summary: - Choice B is incorrect as Vitamin K does not prevent infection. - Choice C is incorrect as Vitamin K does not directly promote healing. - Choice D is incorrect as Vitamin K does not dry secretions.
Question 8 of 9
A 16 y.o. girl is diagnosed with genital herpes. She is tearful and as she asks what she can do to prevent complications of the disease. Based on the data provided, which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for her plan of care?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Risk for transmission of infection. This is appropriate because the girl has genital herpes, which is a sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can be transmitted to others through sexual contact. Therefore, the main concern is preventing the spread of the infection to others. Pain (B) is a symptom of herpes but not the primary concern here. Health-seeking behaviors (C) may be relevant for education and prevention, but not the immediate focus. Ineffective sexuality pattern (D) is not directly related to the risk of transmission of infection in this case.
Question 9 of 9
A client with supraglottic cancer undergoes a partial laryngectomy. Postoperatively, a cuffed tracheostomy tube is in place. When removing secretions that pool above the cuff, the nurse should instruct the client to:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Exhale deeply as the nurse re-inflates the cuff. Rationale: 1. When the cuff of the tracheostomy tube is deflated, the client should be instructed to exhale deeply to prevent aspiration of secretions. 2. Exhaling helps to clear the airway by pushing secretions out of the trachea, reducing the risk of aspiration. 3. Inhaling or holding the breath while the cuff is being re-inflated can increase the risk of inhaling secretions. 4. Coughing as the cuff is being deflated (choice A) may not be as effective in clearing secretions as exhaling deeply. 5. Taking a deep breath as the nurse deflates the cuff (choice C) may not be as effective as exhaling deeply in preventing aspiration. In summary, choice D is the correct answer because exhaling deeply helps clear secretions and reduce the risk of aspiration, while the other choices may