ATI RN
Age Specific Care Competency Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which intervention would be the best initial approach for a nurse to take when a young adult patient is verbally abusive?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct initial approach is to identify the patient's verbal abuse to set standards for future dialogue. This approach addresses the behavior directly, establishes boundaries, and communicates expectations for respectful communication. Asking the patient to define 'verbally abusive language' (choice A) may not effectively address the current behavior. Providing examples of assertive communication (choice B) may not directly address the abusive behavior. Removing privileges (choice D) may escalate the situation and is not a constructive communication strategy. By identifying the patient's verbal abuse, the nurse can address the behavior effectively and work towards a respectful and therapeutic relationship.
Question 2 of 5
An 11-year-old boy stays home from school to care for his siblings while his mother works, because the family cannot afford a babysitter. During the community mental health nurse's visit, he reveals that he thinks his father does not like him because he calls him 'stupid' all the time. He states he is too dumb to learn much and has no friends at school because he does not deserve them. Which nursing diagnosis should be the priority for the child?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Chronic low self-esteem. This diagnosis is appropriate because the child displays a negative self-concept, feeling unworthy, lacking confidence, and believing he is "stupid" and undeserving of friends. This impacts his self-worth and psychological well-being. Chronic low self-esteem is the priority to address as it affects various aspects of his life. Choice A: Helplessness may seem relevant due to the family situation, but the child's core issue is more about self-worth than feeling helpless in his situation. Choice B: Knowledge deficit is not the priority as the child's issue lies more in his emotional well-being rather than lack of information. Choice C: Ineffective coping might be a concern, but the root of his struggles is his self-esteem, making chronic low self-esteem the primary focus.
Question 3 of 5
A community mental health nurse receives a new client for his caseload. The diagnosis of the client is residual schizophrenia. Documentation states that the client has a number of negative symptoms. Which symptom would the nurse expect to assess in the client?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Emotional blunting. In residual schizophrenia, negative symptoms are prominent, including emotional blunting which refers to a reduced ability to express emotions. This is commonly seen in clients with residual schizophrenia. Explanation of why other choices are incorrect: A: Bizarre, somatic delusions are characteristic of paranoid schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia. B: Disorganized speech pattern is a symptom of disorganized schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia. C: Catatonic posturing is associated with catatonic schizophrenia, not residual schizophrenia.
Question 4 of 5
A newly admitted patient diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia is hypervigilant and constantly scans the environment. He states that he saw two doctors talking in the hall and knows they were plotting to kill him. When charting, how should the nurse identify this behavior?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Idea of reference. This patient's belief that the doctors were plotting to kill him is an example of an idea of reference, a symptom of paranoia common in paranoid schizophrenia. This term refers to the belief that neutral actions or events are directed at oneself. Delusion of infidelity (B) involves false beliefs about a partner's infidelity, not relevant here. Auditory hallucination (C) is false perception of sound, not applicable. Echolalia (D) is the repetition of words or phrases, not seen in this scenario. Identifying the behavior as an idea of reference helps the nurse understand the patient's distorted perception and tailor interventions effectively.
Question 5 of 5
A patient has schizophrenia and is troubled by negative symptoms, muscle stiffness, and motor restlessness. His Advanced Practice Nurse (APN) is considering changing the patient's antipsychotic medication, haloperidol (Haldol, a typical or first generation antipsychotic drug). For planning purposes, which medication can the nurse assume that the APN will probably choose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Olanzapine (Zyprexa). Olanzapine is an atypical or second-generation antipsychotic known for effectively treating negative symptoms, muscle stiffness, and motor restlessness in schizophrenia. It has a lower risk of extrapyramidal side effects compared to typical antipsychotics like haloperidol. Chlorpromazine (A) is a typical antipsychotic with similar side effect profiles as haloperidol. Clozapine (B) is an atypical antipsychotic but is typically reserved for treatment-resistant cases due to its potential for serious side effects. Fluoxetine (D) is an antidepressant and not typically used for treating the symptoms described in the question. Therefore, the APN will likely choose Olanzapine to address the patient's symptoms effectively with a lower risk of side effects.