ATI RN
Nursing Care of the Newborn and Family Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which infant is at the greatest risk for SIDS?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is option A) an infant between 1 and 4 months of age. This age group is at the greatest risk for Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS) due to various factors. Infants between 1 and 4 months have not yet developed the full ability to regulate their breathing and arousal from sleep, which are crucial in preventing SIDS. Additionally, this age range is when the risk of SIDS is highest according to research and statistics. Option B) a post-date neonate is not the correct answer because while being post-date can pose certain risks to the newborn, it is not specifically linked to an increased risk of SIDS. Option C) a baby 6 to 12 months of age is also incorrect as the risk of SIDS decreases after the age of 6 months when infants have better developed physiological mechanisms to protect themselves during sleep. Option D) a baby 4 to 6 months of age is not the greatest risk group, although infants in this age range are still susceptible to SIDS. In an educational context, it is crucial for nurses caring for newborns and their families to understand the risk factors associated with SIDS to provide appropriate education and support. By recognizing that infants between 1 and 4 months are at the highest risk, nurses can tailor their education efforts to focus on safe sleep practices, such as placing the baby on their back to sleep, using a firm sleep surface, and keeping soft bedding and toys out of the sleep area. This knowledge empowers nurses to effectively educate parents and caregivers on reducing the risk of SIDS and promoting infant safety.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is caring for an infant with FAS. What symptoms would the nurse expect to see when assessing the infant?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In caring for an infant with Fetal Alcohol Syndrome (FAS), it is crucial for nurses to recognize the characteristic symptoms to provide appropriate care. Option C, small eyes, thin upper lip, and smooth skin between the nose and upper lip, is the correct choice. This combination of features, known as the "triad of FAS," is indicative of prenatal alcohol exposure. Options A, B, and D describe features that are not typically associated with FAS. Widely spaced nipples and a webbed neck (Option A) are not specific to FAS. Option B describes features more commonly seen in Down syndrome than FAS. Option D, an acyanotic infant with a murmur, is not a typical presentation of FAS. Educationally, it is vital for nurses to be able to differentiate between the distinctive physical characteristics of various conditions, especially when caring for vulnerable populations like newborns with FAS. Understanding these key signs can lead to early identification, appropriate interventions, and improved outcomes for infants affected by prenatal alcohol exposure.
Question 3 of 5
A premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) receives artificial surfactant. How does the nurse explain surfactant therapy to the parents?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In explaining surfactant therapy to parents of a premature infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS), the nurse should choose option B) Surfactant improves the ability of your infant’s lungs to exchange oxygen and carbon dioxide. This answer is correct because artificial surfactant helps reduce surface tension in the lungs, preventing alveolar collapse and improving gas exchange, which is crucial for the infant's respiratory function. Option A is incorrect because surfactant therapy is not related to sedation requirements. Option C is incorrect because surfactant is not used to reduce tachycardia episodes. Option D is incorrect because surfactant is not administered to fight respiratory tract infections but rather to improve lung function in RDS. Educationally, it is important for parents to understand the rationale behind the treatment their infant is receiving. By explaining how surfactant works to improve lung function, parents can better comprehend the importance of this therapy in helping their infant breathe more effectively and potentially improve outcomes in RDS cases. This information empowers parents to be more actively involved in their infant's care and advocate for appropriate treatment.
Question 4 of 5
The birthing parent has been watched closely by their health-care team because of their risk factors for delivering prematurely. What items in this patient’s medical history and current diagnosis increase their risk for delivering prematurely? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct answer is B) obesity. Obesity is a significant risk factor for premature delivery due to various physiological and metabolic changes it causes in the body. Obesity can lead to conditions such as gestational diabetes, preeclampsia, and other complications that increase the likelihood of preterm birth. A) Hypertension, although a risk factor for complications during pregnancy, is not directly linked to an increased risk of premature delivery in this case. C) Age alone (27 years) is not a strong indicator for premature delivery. While advanced maternal age (usually considered over 35) can be a risk factor, being 27 years old is not a significant contributor to premature birth. D) A history of premature delivery is a strong predictor of future preterm births. However, in this question, the focus is on current risk factors that increase the likelihood of delivering prematurely, making obesity the most relevant choice. Educationally, this question highlights the importance of recognizing specific risk factors for premature delivery in pregnant individuals. Understanding how various factors such as obesity can impact pregnancy outcomes is crucial for healthcare providers to effectively assess and manage high-risk pregnancies. By identifying and addressing these risk factors early, healthcare teams can work towards reducing the incidence of preterm births and improving outcomes for both the birthing parent and the newborn.
Question 5 of 5
A 3-month-old has pulled out their NG tube at home, and the mother is now speaking with the on-call nurse. What recommendation should the nurse provide her?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct recommendation for the nurse to provide to the mother is option C) attempt to replace the NG tube yourself following discharge training. Rationale: 1. Option C is correct because the mother has received discharge training on how to manage the NG tube at home. This training equips her with the necessary skills to safely replace the tube without immediate medical intervention. 2. Option A and B (driving the infant to the nearest ER or calling 911) are not the most appropriate initial actions in this situation. The mother has the knowledge and ability to handle the situation at home, reducing unnecessary emergency department visits or EMS calls. 3. Option D is incorrect because feeding the infant by mouth without the NG tube in place can lead to inadequate nutrition and hydration, especially if the infant requires specialized feeding or medications. Educational context: It is crucial for healthcare providers to educate parents and caregivers on the proper care and management of medical devices like NG tubes at home. Providing discharge training ensures that they are prepared to handle common issues that may arise, such as accidental removal of the tube. By empowering parents with the knowledge and skills to address these situations, unnecessary stress and healthcare costs can be minimized.