Which imaging modality is most commonly used to diagnose fractures of the long bones, such as the femur or tibia?

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Question 1 of 9

Which imaging modality is most commonly used to diagnose fractures of the long bones, such as the femur or tibia?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: X-ray is the most commonly used imaging modality to diagnose fractures of the long bones, such as the femur or tibia. X-rays are readily available, fast, cost-effective, and provide detailed images of the bone structures. Fractures appear as breaks or discontinuities in the bone on X-ray images, making it an excellent tool for diagnosing bone fractures. In many cases, X-rays are sufficient to confirm the presence, location, and type of fracture, allowing for appropriate treatment planning. Other imaging modalities like MRI and CT scans may be used for further evaluation in complex cases, but X-ray remains the initial and primary choice for diagnosing long bone fractures.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with sudden-onset, painless vision loss in the right eye. Fundoscopic examination reveals a cherry-red spot at the macula and attenuated retinal vessels. Which of the following conditions is most likely responsible for this presentation?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The presentation described with sudden-onset, painless vision loss, a cherry-red spot at the macula, and attenuated retinal vessels is classic for central retinal artery occlusion (CRAO). CRAO occurs when the central retinal artery, which supplies blood to the inner retinal layers, becomes occluded. The cherry-red spot is due to the exposure of the underlying choroid, which still appears red as it is not affected by the blockage. Attenuated retinal vessels and a pale retina may also be seen due to ischemia. In contrast, central retinal vein occlusion (choice B) presents with sudden painless vision loss, retinal hemorrhages, dilated retinal veins, and cotton-wool spots. Retinal detachment (choice C) typically presents with flashes, floaters, and a curtain-like shadow across the vision. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following laboratory findings is characteristic of a patient with a diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The diagnosis of gestational diabetes mellitus (GDM) is typically confirmed through an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) during pregnancy. In GDM, the 2-hour plasma glucose level during the OGTT is equal to or greater than 140 mg/dL. This finding is characteristic of GDM and distinguishes it from other types of diabetes. Fasting blood glucose ≥126 mg/dL is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus outside of pregnancy, not specifically GDM. Random plasma glucose ≥200 mg/dL is indicative of uncontrolled diabetes in general. Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) ≥6.5% is used for diagnosing diabetes outside of pregnancy and is not specific to GDM.

Question 4 of 9

Three hours postpartum, a primiparous patient's fundus is firm and midline. On perineal inspection by Nurse Kayla, she observes a small constant trickle of blood. What will thee nurse suspect for the patient to have?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the firm and midline fundus at three hours postpartum indicates that the uterus is contracting well. The presence of a small constant trickle of blood on perineal inspection suggests ongoing bleeding. This combination of findings is concerning for retained placenta, where a portion of the placenta remains attached to the uterine wall and prevents proper contraction and closure of the blood vessels at the placental site. Retained placenta can lead to postpartum hemorrhage and requires prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent complications. Nurse Kayla should escalate this finding to the healthcare provider for further assessment and management.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following statements BEST describes Public Health Nursing?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Public Health Nursing is a specialized field of nursing that focuses on promoting and protecting the health of populations and communities rather than individuals. One of the key principles of Public Health Nursing is the emphasis on health promotion and disease prevention strategies. This involves educating and empowering individuals, families, and communities to adopt healthy behaviors and lifestyles in order to prevent illness and improve overall well-being. Public Health Nurses work to address the root causes of health disparities and advocate for policies and programs that promote the health of entire populations. While providing care to sick individuals may be a component of Public Health Nursing, the primary focus is on preventing illness and promoting health at the community level.

Question 6 of 9

What condition is NOT likely to developing Sherry?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Sherry is a type of fortified wine produced in Spain. It is not associated with the development of hyperkalemia, which is a condition characterized by high levels of potassium in the blood. Hyperkalemia is commonly caused by kidney dysfunction, certain medications, or excessive intake of potassium-rich foods. Drinking Sherry is not likely to cause hyperkalemia. On the other hand, Sherry consumption can potentially contribute to tooth decay, gastric ulcers, and rectal bleeding due to its acidity and alcohol content.

Question 7 of 9

A patient is exhibiting classic sign of a hemorrhagic stroke. What report from the patient would be an indicator of this type of stroke?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: A severe headache is a classic sign of a hemorrhagic stroke. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs when a blood vessel in the brain ruptures and causes bleeding. This bleeding can lead to increased pressure within the skull, resulting in a sudden and severe headache. Other symptoms of a hemorrhagic stroke may include nausea, vomiting, sudden weakness or numbness on one side of the body, difficulty speaking or understanding speech, and loss of coordination. It is important to seek immediate medical attention if someone is experiencing symptoms of a stroke, including a severe headache, as prompt treatment is crucial in minimizing damage and improving outcomes.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following is an evidence of the a poor family coping Index related to healthcare attitudes ?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Introducing solid food to a three-month-old baby is considered a poor healthcare attitude as it goes against the recommended guidelines for infant feeding. The World Health Organization (WHO) and other health authorities suggest exclusive breastfeeding for the first six months of a baby's life, followed by the introduction of safe and appropriate complementary foods. Introducing solid food too early can increase the risk of food allergies, obesity, and other health issues in babies. Therefore, a young mother introducing solid food to her three-month-old baby is evidence of a poor family coping index related to healthcare attitudes.

Question 9 of 9

Which of the following is the preventive measure to osteoporosis development

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Calcium is essential for maintaining strong and healthy bones. Osteoporosis is a condition characterized by weakened bones, making them more prone to fractures. Consuming calcium-rich foods such as dairy products, leafy greens, and fortified foods can help prevent osteoporosis development. Additionally, incorporating calcium supplements under the guidance of a healthcare provider can further support bone health and reduce the risk of osteoporosis. Regular intake of adequate calcium is considered a crucial preventive measure for osteoporosis.

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