Which heart sound is most commonly associated with heart failure?

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Health Assessment Vital Signs Quizlet Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which heart sound is most commonly associated with heart failure?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: S3. In heart failure, S3 heart sound is often heard due to rapid ventricular filling during early diastole. This sound is associated with volume overload and impaired left ventricular function. S1 and S2 are normal heart sounds, while S4 is associated with stiff ventricles and is commonly heard in conditions like hypertension or aortic stenosis. Therefore, S3 is the most commonly associated heart sound with heart failure due to its specific characteristics in this condition.

Question 2 of 5

During a respiratory assessment, the nurse notes dullness on percussion over the right lower lung field. What does this finding suggest?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The dullness on percussion over the right lower lung field suggests consolidation or pleural effusion. Consolidation refers to the filling of air spaces in the lungs with fluid, pus, or cellular debris, leading to solidification of lung tissue and dullness on percussion. Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space, which can also cause dullness on percussion due to the presence of fluid in the lung field. This finding is not indicative of normal lung tissue (Option A), as dullness is not expected over normal lung tissue. Pneumothorax (Option B) is characterized by hyperresonance on percussion due to the presence of air in the pleural space. Hyperinflation of the lung (Option D) would typically present with hyperresonance on percussion due to increased air volume in the lungs.

Question 3 of 5

A 70-year-old man presents with a complaint of difficulty walking. He has a history of Parkinson's disease and is currently taking levodopa. On examination, he has rigidity, bradykinesia, and a shuffling gait. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Parkinson's disease progression. This is the most likely cause of the patient's symptoms due to his history of Parkinson's disease and the presence of typical Parkinsonian features such as rigidity, bradykinesia, and shuffling gait. Levodopa is a common medication used to manage symptoms of Parkinson's disease. The progression of Parkinson's disease can lead to worsening motor symptoms over time, including difficulty walking. Option B: Normal aging is incorrect because the patient's symptoms are not solely due to the aging process, but rather are consistent with the known condition of Parkinson's disease. Option C: Cerebellar ataxia is unlikely as the patient's symptoms align more closely with Parkinsonian features rather than cerebellar dysfunction. Option D: Spinal cord compression is not the most likely cause as the patient's symptoms are more characteristic of Parkinson's disease progression rather than symptoms typically associated with spinal cord compression.

Question 4 of 5

A 60-year-old man presents with a complaint of difficulty swallowing. He reports that the difficulty has been present for several months and is associated with weight loss. He has a history of smoking and heavy alcohol use. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The most likely diagnosis for a 60-year-old man with difficulty swallowing, weight loss, history of smoking, and heavy alcohol use is esophageal cancer. 1. Difficulty swallowing over months could indicate a progressive condition like cancer. 2. Weight loss may be due to malnutrition from impaired swallowing. 3. History of smoking and alcohol use are risk factors for esophageal cancer. 4. Symptoms are more consistent with cancer than other conditions listed. Other choices are less likely: - B: Achalasia presents with dysphagia but typically not associated with weight loss. - C: GERD can cause swallowing difficulties but is less likely to lead to significant weight loss. - D: Peptic ulcer disease usually presents with upper abdominal pain, not primarily difficulty swallowing and weight loss.

Question 5 of 5

A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a dry cough. He has a history of smoking and frequent sinus infections. Chest X-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct diagnosis is A: Sarcoidosis. In this case, the key features are bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, shortness of breath, dry cough, smoking history, and frequent sinus infections. Sarcoidosis commonly presents with these symptoms and radiographic findings. Hilar lymphadenopathy is a classic feature of sarcoidosis due to granuloma formation. Lung cancer (B) is less likely given the presentation and the absence of lung mass on imaging. Pneumonia (C) typically presents with consolidations on chest X-ray, which is not seen in this case. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (D) is characterized by airflow limitation and does not typically present with hilar lymphadenopathy.

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