ATI RN
test bank foundations of nursing Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which form of heart disease in women of childbearing years usually has a benign effect on pregnancy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Mitral valve prolapse. This condition is usually benign during pregnancy because the heart's workload increases, and the mitral valve is a one-way valve that prevents blood from flowing back into the left atrium. Mitral valve prolapse typically does not significantly affect the heart's ability to pump blood efficiently during pregnancy. Rationale: 1. Cardiomyopathy (A) can worsen during pregnancy, leading to complications for both the mother and the fetus. 2. Rheumatic heart disease (C) can cause valve damage, increasing the risk of complications during pregnancy. 3. Congenital heart disease (D) varies in severity and can pose risks during pregnancy, depending on the specific condition. Summary: Mitral valve prolapse is the correct answer as it is less likely to cause significant issues during pregnancy compared to the other options provided.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with an inoperable brain tumor has been told that he has a short life expectancy. On what aspects of assessment and care should the home health nurse focus? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain control. This is the main focus because the patient's quality of life should be prioritized, and managing pain is crucial for comfort and well-being in end-of-life care. Pain can significantly impact the patient's physical and emotional state. The other choices are incorrect because managing treatment complications (B) and administering treatments (E) may not be relevant if the tumor is inoperable and the patient has a short life expectancy. Interpretation of diagnostic tests (C) may not be necessary at this stage, and assistance with self-care (D) may not be the main priority compared to pain control.
Question 3 of 9
When teaching patients about the risk factors of cervical cancer, what would the nurse identify as the most important risk factor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Human papillomavirus (HPV). HPV is the most important risk factor for cervical cancer as it is responsible for almost all cases. Step 1: HPV infection can lead to changes in cervical cells, increasing the risk of cancer. Step 2: Early detection and vaccination against HPV can prevent cervical cancer. Step 3: Other factors like late childbearing, postmenopausal bleeding, and tobacco use may be associated with increased risk but are not as directly linked to cervical cancer development.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is planning the care of a patient with AIDS who is admitted to the unit withPneumocystis pneumonia (PCP). Which nursing diagnosis has the highest priority for this patient?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Ineffective Airway Clearance. In a patient with AIDS and PCP, maintaining clear airways is crucial to prevent respiratory distress and hypoxia. Pneumocystis pneumonia can cause thick secretions and mucus plugging, leading to difficulty breathing. Ensuring effective airway clearance is a priority to optimize oxygenation and prevent respiratory complications. Impaired oral mucous membranes (B) and imbalanced nutrition (C) are important considerations but not as immediate as airway clearance. Activity intolerance (D) may be a concern for the patient but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence.
Question 5 of 9
The clinic nurse is assessing a child who has been brought to the clinic with signs and symptoms that are suggestive of otitis externa. What assessment finding is characteristic of otitis externa?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Pain on manipulation of the auricle is characteristic of otitis externa. This is because otitis externa is an infection or inflammation of the outer ear canal, causing pain and tenderness when the ear is touched or manipulated. A: Tophi on the pinna and ear lobe is characteristic of gout, not otitis externa. B: Dark yellow cerumen in the external auditory canal is common and not specific to otitis externa. D: Air bubbles visible in the middle ear are associated with otitis media, not otitis externa. In summary, pain on manipulation of the auricle is a key assessment finding in otitis externa, distinguishing it from other ear conditions.
Question 6 of 9
Since the emergence of HIV/AIDS, there have been significant changes in epidemiologic trends. Members of what group currently have the greatest risk of contracting HIV?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gay, bisexual, and other men who have sex with men. This group currently has the highest risk of contracting HIV due to various factors such as higher prevalence within this population, risky sexual behaviors, and limited access to healthcare services. Men who have sex with men have been disproportionately affected by HIV/AIDS since the beginning of the epidemic. Recreational drug users and blood transfusion recipients have lower overall risk compared to men who have sex with men. Health care providers, although at risk of occupational exposure, have lower risk compared to the other groups mentioned.
Question 7 of 9
An oncology nurse is caring for a patient who has developed erythema following radiation therapy. What should the nurse instruct the patient to do?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Apply petroleum jelly to the affected area. This is because petroleum jelly helps to soothe and protect the skin, reducing dryness and irritation caused by radiation therapy. Ice (A) can further damage the skin, shaving (B) can increase the risk of infection, and soap (D) can be too harsh on the sensitive skin. Therefore, instructing the patient to apply petroleum jelly is the most appropriate recommendation to promote skin healing and comfort.
Question 8 of 9
A patient with a recent diagnosis of HIV infection expresses an interest in exploring alternative and complementary therapies. How should the nurse best respond?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it acknowledges that many HIV patients use alternative therapies and emphasizes the importance of weighing the benefits and risks. This response shows respect for the patient's autonomy and preferences while also recognizing the need for informed decision-making. Choice A is incorrect because it dismisses complementary therapies outright without considering individual patient needs or preferences. Choice B is incorrect as it suggests avoiding alternative therapies entirely, which may not align with the patient's wishes or experiences. Choice D is incorrect as it presents a false dichotomy between alternative and medical approaches, disregarding the possibility of integrating both types of treatments.
Question 9 of 9
A nurse practitioner is examining a patient who presented at the free clinic with vulvar pruritus. For which assessment finding would the practitioner look that may indicate the patient has an infection caused by Candida albicans?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cottage cheese-like discharge. Candida albicans is a common cause of vulvovaginal candidiasis, characterized by itching and cottage cheese-like discharge. This type of discharge is specific to a yeast infection. Yellow-green discharge (choice B) is indicative of trichomoniasis, gray-white discharge (choice C) is seen in bacterial vaginosis, and watery discharge with a fishy odor (choice D) is characteristic of bacterial vaginosis or trichomoniasis. Therefore, the presence of cottage cheese-like discharge is a key indicator of a Candida albicans infection.