ATI RN
Cardiovascular Physiology Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which food supplement should the nurse be concerned about in a client taking an ACE inhibitor?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium chloride. ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels in the body, so taking a potassium supplement can lead to hyperkalemia. Sodium chloride (A) does not directly interact with ACE inhibitors. Cayenne pepper (C) and ground black pepper (D) are not known to have interactions with ACE inhibitors. Potassium chloride supplementation is concerning due to the potential for hyperkalemia in clients taking ACE inhibitors.
Question 2 of 5
The client is taking a medication that is an ADP receptor blocker for the prevention of ischemic stroke. What might this medication be?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Plavix. Plavix is an ADP receptor blocker that inhibits platelet aggregation, reducing the risk of blood clots and stroke. Aspirin is a cyclooxygenase inhibitor, Heparin is an anticoagulant, and Warfarin is a vitamin K antagonist, all of which work through different mechanisms and are not ADP receptor blockers. Hence, Plavix is the most suitable option for preventing ischemic stroke in this scenario.
Question 3 of 5
The client is taking niacin for cholesterol reduction. What common adverse reaction should the nurse warn the client about?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Facial flushing. Niacin commonly causes vasodilation, leading to facial flushing. This is a well-known adverse reaction that can be distressing to clients. Dizziness (A), urinary retention (B), and constipation (C) are not typically associated with niacin use. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this side effect to help manage expectations and promote adherence to the treatment plan.
Question 4 of 5
The client has a sudden increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility. What part of the client’s body is likely activated?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: The sympathetic nervous system. When the client experiences a sudden increase in heart rate and contractility, the sympathetic nervous system is likely activated. This is because the sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, which increases heart rate and contractility to prepare the body for action. The other choices are incorrect because: A: The parasympathetic nervous system would have the opposite effect, slowing down heart rate and contractility. B: The AV node is a part of the heart's electrical conduction system, not directly involved in increasing heart rate and contractility. C: Baroreceptors in the carotid sinus are responsible for regulating blood pressure, not directly influencing heart rate and contractility.
Question 5 of 5
The client has atrial fibrillation. What can the nurse say about the P wave?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: The P wave is absent. In atrial fibrillation, the atria are quivering and not contracting effectively, leading to the absence of distinct P waves on the ECG. This is due to the chaotic electrical activity in the atria. Rationale: A: The P wave does not precede a long PR interval in atrial fibrillation. Instead, the irregular electrical signals cause variable PR intervals. B: The P wave falling on the previous T wave is not a characteristic of atrial fibrillation. The T wave represents ventricular repolarization, whereas the P wave reflects atrial depolarization. D: The P wave being peaked is not relevant to atrial fibrillation. In this arrhythmia, the absence of distinct P waves is a key feature due to the erratic atrial activity.