ATI RN
Health Assessment Practice Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which food should be avoided by clients prone to heartburn from GERD?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Chocolate. Chocolate is known to trigger heartburn in individuals with GERD due to its high fat content and caffeine. Fat relaxes the lower esophageal sphincter, allowing stomach acid to flow back up the esophagus, leading to heartburn. Caffeine can also relax the sphincter and trigger acid reflux. Lettuce (A) and eggs (B) are generally well-tolerated and do not commonly trigger heartburn. Butterscotch (D) may be high in fat and sugar, but it is less likely to cause heartburn compared to chocolate.
Question 2 of 9
What is the first priority for a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Administer corticosteroids. In a client with chest pain and a history of myocardial infarction, the first priority is to address potential inflammation in the myocardium. Corticosteroids help reduce inflammation and stabilize the myocardium, which is crucial in preventing further damage post-myocardial infarction. Administering nitroglycerin (A) is important for vasodilation, but it is typically used after corticosteroids. Morphine (B) and analgesics (C) may provide pain relief but do not address the underlying inflammation. Administering corticosteroids is the most appropriate first step to manage myocardial inflammation and protect the heart tissue.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is assessing a patient with a history of stroke. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Patients with a history of stroke are at increased risk for DVT due to immobility and potential damage to blood vessels. The nurse should monitor for signs such as swelling, pain, and redness in the extremities. Pneumonia (A) can occur post-stroke but is not the most common complication. Hypoglycemia (C) is more relevant for diabetic patients. Hypertension (D) is a common comorbidity in stroke patients but monitoring for DVT is crucial due to its immediate life-threatening implications.
Question 4 of 9
A 32-year-old woman is at the clinic for a checkup, and she states,"I have little white bumps in my mouth." During the assessment, the nurse notes that she has a 5-cm white, nontender papule under her tongue and one on the mucosa of her right cheek. Which of the following would the nurse tell the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because Fordyce's granules are small, yellow-white or flesh-colored spots that are sebaceous glands and commonly found on the oral mucosa. They are benign and do not require treatment. In this case, the patient's description matches the characteristics of Fordyce's granules. Option A is incorrect because strep throat typically presents with other symptoms like sore throat and fever, not white bumps in the mouth. Option B is incorrect as there is no indication of a serious lesion based on the description given. Option C is incorrect as leukoplakia is a condition associated with chronic irritation, not Fordyce's granules.
Question 5 of 9
The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data together form the:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: database. The patient's record, laboratory studies, objective data, and subjective data collectively form the database in healthcare. This term refers to a comprehensive collection of all pertinent information about a patient that is used for analysis, diagnosis, and treatment planning. The other choices are incorrect because B: admitting data specifically refers to information gathered at the time of admission, C: financial statement pertains to financial information, and D: discharge summary summarizes the patient's care and treatment at the time of discharge, not the entire patient record.
Question 6 of 9
Which value should a nurse monitor closely when a client is on TPN?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Glucose. Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a form of nutrition delivered directly into the bloodstream, providing all essential nutrients including glucose. Monitoring glucose levels is crucial to prevent hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Calcium (A), Magnesium (B), and Cholesterol (D) are not typically monitored closely when a client is on TPN, as they are not directly impacted by TPN administration. Calcium and Magnesium levels are usually monitored for other conditions, and Cholesterol levels are not typically affected by TPN administration.
Question 7 of 9
A 31-year-old patient tells the nurse that he is experiencing a progressive loss of hearing. He says that it does seem to help when people speak more loudly or if he turns up the volume. The most likely cause of his hearing loss is:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: otosclerosis. Otosclerosis is a condition where abnormal bone growth in the middle ear causes hearing loss. In this case, the patient's symptoms of progressive hearing loss improving with louder sounds suggest conductive hearing loss, which is commonly seen in otosclerosis. Other choices are incorrect because presbycusis is age-related hearing loss, trauma to the bones would typically result in sudden hearing loss, and frequent ear infections are more likely to cause temporary hearing loss rather than progressive loss.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching parents of a newborn about feeding their infant. Which instruction should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: 1. Using the defrost setting on microwave ovens to warm bottles is safe because it ensures even heating without creating hot spots that could burn the baby's mouth. 2. This method helps to preserve the nutrients in the breast milk or formula. 3. It is important to warm the bottle to body temperature to mimic the natural feel of breast milk for the baby's comfort. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Feeding the baby partially used bottles after 24 hours can increase the risk of bacterial contamination and foodborne illness. C: Mixing two parts water and one part concentrate for formula concentrate is incorrect as it may dilute the formula, leading to inadequate nutrition for the baby. D: Adding new formula to partially used bottles can alter the balance of nutrients and increase the risk of contamination, affecting the baby's health.
Question 9 of 9
What should the nurse do first for a client with a history of diabetes who is experiencing hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer glucose. In hypoglycemia, the priority is to raise the low blood sugar levels quickly. Administering glucose is the most direct and effective way to do so. Glucose will rapidly increase the blood sugar levels and help the client recover from hypoglycemia. Administering insulin (B) would further lower blood sugar levels. Administering glucagon (C) is used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unconscious. Encouraging deep breathing (D) is not effective in treating hypoglycemia and does not address the immediate need to raise blood sugar levels.