Which food provides a 1-ounce serving of grains for a preschool child?

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Nutrition ATI Test Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which food provides a 1-ounce serving of grains for a preschool child?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 1 cup of ready-to-eat cereal flakes. For a preschool child, 1 cup of ready-to-eat cereal flakes provides a 1-ounce serving of grains, meeting the requirement. Choice B, 1⁄2 slice of whole wheat bread, is not the correct answer as it does not constitute a 1-ounce serving of grains. Similarly, choice C, 1⁄2 of a 6-inch flour tortilla, does not offer a 1-ounce serving of grains. Choice D, 1 cup of cooked rice, also does not provide a 1-ounce serving of grains for a preschool child, making it an incorrect choice.

Question 2 of 9

All of the following are contraindications when giving Immunization except:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. BCG vaccine can be given to a child with Hepatitis B, as there is no contraindication for this. Choice A, C, and D all present contraindications for administering immunizations. Choice A is incorrect because giving BCG vaccines to a child with AIDS is a contraindication. Choice C is incorrect as convulsions after the first DPT dose indicate a contraindication to subsequent doses. Choice D is incorrect because active convulsions or other neurological diseases are contraindications to receiving the DPT vaccine.

Question 3 of 9

All of the following are seen in a child with measles. Which one is not?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Measles typically presents with symptoms like reddened eyes, coryza (inflammation of the mucous membrane in the nose), and cough. However, pustules are not a common symptom of measles. Pustules are more characteristic of conditions like chickenpox rather than measles. Understanding these distinctions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

Question 4 of 9

The nurse notes that the fall might also cause a possible head injury. The patient will be observed for signs of increased intracranial pressure which include:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Periorbital edema is a sign of increased intracranial pressure. It is caused by fluid accumulation around the eyes due to compromised drainage. Narrowing of the pulse pressure is more indicative of shock than increased intracranial pressure. While vomiting can be a sign of increased intracranial pressure, it is not as specific as periorbital edema. A positive Kernig's sign is associated with meningitis, not increased intracranial pressure.

Question 5 of 9

In the management process, the periodic checking of the results of action to make sure that it coincides with the goal of the institution is termed as:

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Evaluating. Evaluating involves the periodic checking of results to ensure they align with the institution's goals. Planning (choice A) is about setting goals and determining the actions required to achieve them. Directing (choice C) involves overseeing and guiding the activities of individuals or teams to accomplish goals. Organizing (choice D) is about arranging resources and tasks to achieve objectives. In the context of the management process described, evaluating best fits the action of checking results against goals.

Question 6 of 9

Based on universally-accepted color codes, what color would you expect a tank containing nitrous oxide (laughing gas) to have?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Red. In the medical field, tanks containing nitrous oxide (laughing gas) are typically color-coded with a specific color for easy identification. Nitrous oxide tanks are commonly labeled with a red color code. This color-coding system helps healthcare providers quickly and accurately identify the contents of the tanks, reducing the risk of errors in administering gases to patients. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because the universally-accepted color for nitrous oxide tanks is red, not blue, green, or orange.

Question 7 of 9

What sensation is used as a gauge so that patients with ileostomy can determine how often their pouch should be drained?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sensation of pressure. Patients with ileostomy can determine how often their pouch should be drained by feeling the sensation of pressure. This is important as it helps prevent leakage or overflow of the pouch. The sensation of taste (choice A) and smell (choice C) are not typically used as gauges for draining the pouch in ileostomy patients. The urge to defecate (choice D) is not relevant in this context as patients with ileostomy do not pass stool through the rectum.

Question 8 of 9

What is the purpose of the cuff in a Tracheostomy tube?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The purpose of the cuff in a Tracheostomy tube is to separate the trachea from the esophagus. The cuff helps prevent aspiration by creating a seal that separates the trachea from the esophagus, reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the lungs. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the cuff's primary function in a Tracheostomy tube is to prevent aspiration rather than separating the upper and lower airway, larynx from the nasopharynx, or securing the placement of the tube.

Question 9 of 9

During the Emergent phase of a burn, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance in a burned client is:

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: During the Emergent phase of burns, the most fatal electrolyte imbalance is Hypokalemia. This is due to the shift of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space, leading to low potassium levels in the blood. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Hyperkalemia, Hypernatremia, and Hyponatremia are not typically associated with the Emergent phase of burns and do not pose the same level of risk as Hypokalemia in this context.

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