ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which food is a reliable source of B12 for a pregnant vegan client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fortified soy milk is a reliable source of vitamin B12 for pregnant vegan clients as it is usually enriched with this vitamin. The other options, while nutritious, are not reliable sources of B12 for vegans. Soybeans may not provide enough B12, algae contains B12 analogs that the human body cannot utilize, and the B12 content in sea vegetables can fluctuate, potentially not providing the necessary daily intake.
Question 2 of 9
What is the primary food safety concern for a patient undergoing chemotherapy?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Potential risk of foodborne illness. Patients undergoing chemotherapy have compromised immune systems, making them more susceptible to foodborne illnesses. Chemotherapy can reduce the count of white blood cells, which impairs the body's ability to fight off infections from bacteria or other pathogens that might be present in food. Therefore, the prevention of foodborne illnesses is a critical concern for these patients. Choices A, B, and C, while they represent valid concerns for food safety in general, are not the primary concern for patients undergoing chemotherapy. These patients are at a heightened risk of experiencing severe complications from foodborne illnesses, making it a more significant concern than potential food allergies, food-drug interactions, or pesticide residues.
Question 3 of 9
In which of the following conditions does a person need to sit, stand, or use multiple pillows when lying down?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is Orthopnea. Orthopnea is a medical condition in which a person has difficulty breathing while lying down. To alleviate this difficulty, the person may need to sit, stand, or use multiple pillows. On the other hand, Dyspnea refers to general shortness of breath which is not specifically related to the position of the body. Eupnea is the term for normal, unlabored breathing, and Apnea is a condition characterized by the cessation of breathing. Thus, none of these other choices directly relate to the need to adjust body position or use aids like multiple pillows to breathe comfortably when lying down.
Question 4 of 9
What instruction should a nurse include when teaching a client who has recently been prescribed a low-sodium diet?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, which directs the client to avoid foods such as smoked meats and frozen dinners. These types of foods are typically high in sodium, making them unsuitable for a low-sodium diet. Option B is incorrect because foods with less than 4g of sodium might still be high in sodium for individuals on low-sodium diets. The daily recommended intake of sodium for a low-sodium diet is usually around 1.5g to 2g. Hence, 4g of sodium in a single food product can be excessive. Option C is incorrect as soy sauce, although a different source of flavor, is also high in sodium and should be used sparingly, if at all, in a low-sodium diet. Option D is incorrect because processed and prepared foods are usually not low in sodium. In fact, these foods often have high sodium content due to added salts and preservatives.
Question 5 of 9
Which dietary modification is most suitable for a client with type 2 diabetes who wants to improve glycemic control?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Decreasing the intake of refined carbohydrates is the most effective dietary modification for a client with type 2 diabetes who aims to improve their glycemic control. Refined carbohydrates can cause sudden spikes in blood sugar levels, making diabetes management more difficult. Increasing the intake of saturated fats (Choice A) is not advisable as it can negatively impact heart health. Completely avoiding all fruits (Choice C) is unnecessary because most fruits have a low glycemic index and provide essential nutrients. Increasing the intake of sugary snacks (Choice D) will deteriorate glycemic control due to their high sugar content.
Question 6 of 9
All of the following are instructions for proper foot care to be given to a client with peripheral vascular disease caused by diabetes. Which one is not?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is 'A', which says trim nails using a nail clipper. This is incorrect because patients with peripheral vascular disease, particularly those caused by diabetes, should not trim their nails themselves due to the risk of injury, infection, and poor wound healing. The other options, 'B', 'C', and 'D', are correct advice for diabetic foot care. Applying cornstarch can help keep the feet dry and prevent fungal infections. Checking the water temperature before bathing can prevent burns, as patients with peripheral vascular disease often have decreased sensation in their feet. Wearing canvas shoes can improve foot ventilation and reduce the risk of foot ulcers and infections.
Question 7 of 9
What special consideration should be taken into account when Mario prepares Richard for postural drainage and percussion?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, 'Monitoring a respiratory rate of 16 to 20 per minute'. When performing postural drainage and percussion, it is crucial to monitor the respiratory rate to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the procedure. Choice B, 'Assessing the client's ability to tolerate sitting and lying positions', while important, is not directly related to the specifics of postural drainage and percussion. Similarly, option C, 'Ensuring the client is free of signs of infection', although important, is not directly linked to the procedure. Option D, 'Knowing the time of the client's last food and fluid intake', might be relevant for other procedures, but it is not the primary consideration for postural drainage and percussion.
Question 8 of 9
What is the fundamental difference between nursing diagnoses and collaborative problems?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, as collaborative problems necessitate the collective expertise and skills of numerous healthcare professionals, including nurses. These problems can be dealt with through independent nursing interventions in cooperation with other team members. Option A is incorrect because collaborative problems aren't strictly managed with physician-prescribed interventions. Option C is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying and treating actual or potential health issues, rather than merely integrating physician-prescribed interventions. Option D is incorrect because nursing diagnoses aim at identifying patient issues, not solely physiologic complications, and guide the necessary nursing care, not just monitor for changes.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about the recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress, which may be instituted after a disaster?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Critical incident stress management is a process that provides individuals with education about recognizing stress reactions and strategizing management techniques for handling stress after a disaster. Choice B, 'Follow-up', is incorrect because it generally refers to continuing care after initial treatment, not specifically to stress management education. Choice C, 'Debriefing', is a process where individuals involved in a critical event are brought together to discuss the event and their reactions to it. It can be part of the critical incident stress management process, but it doesn't cover the whole process. Choice D, 'Defusion', is a technique used in the immediate aftermath of a traumatic event to help individuals process their experiences, but it does not encompass the full range of education about stress recognition and management strategies.