ATI RN
ATI Nutrition Practice Test A 2019 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which food is a reliable source of B12 for a pregnant vegan client?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Fortified soy milk is a reliable source of vitamin B12 for pregnant vegan clients as it is usually enriched with this vitamin. The other options, while nutritious, are not reliable sources of B12 for vegans. Soybeans may not provide enough B12, algae contains B12 analogs that the human body cannot utilize, and the B12 content in sea vegetables can fluctuate, potentially not providing the necessary daily intake.
Question 2 of 9
Which food item interferes with the effectiveness of warfarin?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Broccoli is high in vitamin K, which can affect the effectiveness of warfarin. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that functions by reducing the activity of vitamin K in the body. When one consumes broccoli, which is rich in vitamin K, it could counteract the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, thereby interfering with its effectiveness. On the other hand, cauliflower, zucchini, and green beans do not have significant levels of vitamin K and hence, are not known to impact the effectiveness of warfarin.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following interventions should be considered the highest priority when caring for June, who has hemiparesis secondary to a stroke?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Apply antiembolic stockings'. In the case of a patient who has experienced a stroke and is suffering from hemiparesis, the highest priority intervention is to prevent further complications such as deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which can be life-threatening. Antiembolic stockings are used to increase venous blood flow velocity and reduce the risk of DVT. Choice 'A', positioning June in an upright lateral position, while important for overall care, is not the highest priority. Choice 'B', performing range of motion exercises, is an important part of recovery but not the immediate priority. Choice 'D', using hand rolls or pillows for support, is also a valuable intervention but does not address the most pressing risk of further complications.
Question 4 of 9
Which individual would be at the greatest risk for deficiencies in water-soluble vitamins?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'An individual who consumes a diet high in processed foods.' Processed foods are often deficient in water-soluble vitamins such as vitamin C and B vitamins, which can lead to deficiencies. On the other hand, fruits, vegetables, and organ meats are rich sources of these vitamins, so individuals who consume these regularly are less likely to develop deficiencies. While dairy products do contain some water-soluble vitamins, they are not depleted as quickly as they are in a diet high in processed foods, making a deficiency less likely.
Question 5 of 9
What is considered fast breathing in a 13-month-old child if the respiratory rate (RR) exceeds which value?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric care, a respiratory rate of more than 60 breaths per minute in a child aged 13 months is considered fast breathing, hence option 'C' is correct. Options 'A', 'B', and 'D' are incorrect as they do not meet the specified criteria for fast breathing in a 13-month-old. Effective nursing care involves comprehensive assessments that address all aspects of a patient's condition, including monitoring respiratory rates, to ensure that interventions are appropriately targeted and outcomes are optimized.
Question 6 of 9
Which of the following terms refers to a process by which an individual receives education about the recognition of stress reactions and management strategies for handling stress, which may be instituted after a disaster?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Critical incident stress management is a process that provides individuals with education about recognizing stress reactions and strategizing management techniques for handling stress after a disaster. Choice B, 'Follow-up', is incorrect because it generally refers to continuing care after initial treatment, not specifically to stress management education. Choice C, 'Debriefing', is a process where individuals involved in a critical event are brought together to discuss the event and their reactions to it. It can be part of the critical incident stress management process, but it doesn't cover the whole process. Choice D, 'Defusion', is a technique used in the immediate aftermath of a traumatic event to help individuals process their experiences, but it does not encompass the full range of education about stress recognition and management strategies.
Question 7 of 9
When assessing older adult clients for malnutrition at an adult day care center, which risk factors should the nurse consider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Both A and B. Dental problems and depression are both significant risk factors for malnutrition in older adults. Dental problems can lead to difficulty in chewing and swallowing, resulting in reduced food intake. On the other hand, depression can cause changes in appetite and decreased interest in eating, which can also contribute to malnutrition. Although the ability to prepare meals is important, it is not specifically identified as a risk factor for malnutrition within the context of this question. Therefore, choices A and B are the most appropriate answers.
Question 8 of 9
24 hours after the creation of a colostomy, what should Nurse Violy identify as the normal appearance of the stoma?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Following colostomy surgery, a healthy stoma should appear pink, moist, and slightly protruding from the abdomen, which is why option 'A' is the correct answer. A gray stoma (choice 'B') could indicate poor blood supply or necrosis, which is a serious complication. A dry stoma (choice 'C') is also not normal as it should be moist; a dry stoma may suggest dehydration or other complications. While a stoma can appear red (choice 'D'), this is not typically the normal color; it should usually be pink. Therefore, it's important for healthcare professionals to correctly identify the normal and abnormal appearances of a stoma to ensure proper patient care.
Question 9 of 9
Which of the following should a patient with a history of chronic pancreatitis avoid?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Alcohol. Alcohol consumption can exacerbate chronic pancreatitis due to its detrimental effects on the pancreas. Conversely, options A, B, and C: Low-fat dairy, Lean meats, and High-fiber vegetables, are generally recommended for patients with chronic pancreatitis. These dietary options are easier on the pancreas and less likely to provoke symptoms. Therefore, they are incorrect choices in this context.