ATI RN
jarvis physical examination and health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which finding below would be unusual in a patient with diabetic retinopathy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Papilledema. Diabetic retinopathy is a microvascular complication of diabetes that primarily affects the retina's blood vessels. Papilledema, which is optic disc swelling due to increased intracranial pressure, is not a typical finding in diabetic retinopathy. Dot and blot hemorrhages, microaneurysms, and cotton wool spots are commonly seen in diabetic retinopathy due to retinal vessel damage and ischemia. Papilledema is more associated with conditions like intracranial hypertension or optic neuritis.
Question 2 of 9
A 32-year-old warehouse worker presents for evaluation of low back pain. He notes a sudden onset of pain after lifting a set of boxes that were heavier than usual. He also states that he has numbness and tingling in the left leg. He wants to know if he needs to be off of work. What test should you perform to assess for a herniated disc?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Straight-leg raise. This test is used to assess for herniated disc by stretching the sciatic nerve. A positive test is indicated by reproduction of leg pain when the leg is raised between 30 to 70 degrees. This suggests nerve root irritation, common in herniated disc. A: Leg-length test - This test is used to assess for leg length discrepancy, not herniated disc. C: Tinel's test - This test is used to assess for nerve compression, typically in carpal tunnel syndrome, not specifically for herniated disc. D: Phalen's test - This test is used to assess for carpal tunnel syndrome, not herniated disc.
Question 3 of 9
On examination of the neck, a dome-shaped lesion in the dermis forming a benign closed firm sac attached to the epidermis is noted on the right lateral side of the neck. The type of lesion is known as:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Step 1: Identify the characteristics of the lesion described - dome-shaped, in dermis, benign, closed sac attached to epidermis. Step 2: A cutaneous cyst fits all these characteristics - it is a benign closed sac in the dermis with attachment to the epidermis. Step 3: Keloid (A) is an overgrowth of scar tissue, not a closed sac lesion. Tophi (B) are deposits of uric acid crystals, not a sac. Chondrodermatitis (D) is inflammation of cartilage and skin, not a closed sac lesion. Summary: A cutaneous cyst is the correct choice as it matches all the characteristics given, while the other options do not fit the description provided.
Question 4 of 9
An 86-year-old man with no ADL deficits who has stopped driving because of macular degeneration is evaluated for a urinary tract infection associated with urinary retention. The consulting urologist places a Foley catheter and sends a prostate-specific antigen (PSA) level that comes back 12 ng/mL. Three months later after the Foley has been removed and he has had a good response to tamsulosin, his PSA is still 10 ng/mL. What is the appropriate next step in managing this man’s prostate problem?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Repeat PSA in 6 months. In this case, the patient's PSA levels have decreased from 12 ng/mL to 10 ng/mL after treatment with tamsulosin and removal of the Foley catheter. Given the improvement in PSA levels, it is reasonable to monitor for further changes before considering invasive procedures like transrectal ultrasound and biopsy (choice A), which may not be necessary at this time. Empiric finasteride (choice B) is not indicated as the patient is already responding well to tamsulosin. A bone scan (choice C) is not necessary at this stage as there are no indications of metastasis. Therefore, repeating the PSA in 6 months allows for continued monitoring of the patient's prostate health without subjecting him to unnecessary procedures.
Question 5 of 9
Mr. Roberts, a 72-year-old patient who has sought medical care on an intermittent basis in the past, complains of aching discomfort in his perineal area, urinary urgency, and frequency for the past few years. He also complains of insomnia and intermittent anxiety that he attributes to loneliness after his wife’s death about a year ago. Digital rectal examination (DRE) reveals a slightly enlarged, nontender prostate with no palpable nodules. Perineal examination is normal. Bladder scan is unremarkable and postvoid residual urine volume is 50 mL. Urinalysis shows no WBCs or RBCs. Urine culture is negative. Previous treatment has included dietary modifications and alpha-blocker medication. What is the most appropriate next step?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Screen for depression. The patient's symptoms of insomnia, anxiety, and loneliness after his wife's death suggest he may be experiencing depression, which can manifest as physical symptoms like urinary urgency and frequency. Since the patient has already received appropriate treatment for his urinary symptoms, addressing his mental health is the next crucial step. This can help improve his overall well-being and quality of life. Starting an antibiotic course (choice A) is not indicated as there are no signs of infection. Initiating a 5-alpha-reductase inhibitor (choice B) is not necessary given the absence of specific indications such as obstructive voiding symptoms. Urodynamic testing (choice C) is not warranted at this stage as the patient's history and findings do not suggest underlying bladder dysfunction.
Question 6 of 9
A patient complains of knee pain on your arrival in the room. What should your first sentence be after greeting the patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because asking the patient to describe what happened will provide crucial information about the onset, nature, and potential cause of the knee pain. This open-ended question allows the patient to share their experience freely, aiding in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment planning. Option A focuses solely on pain intensity, which is important but not as comprehensive as understanding the context of the pain (D). Options B and C are more specific to past injuries and onset time, respectively, which are relevant but not as immediate and all-encompassing as asking the patient to describe the current issue (D).
Question 7 of 9
A 22-year-old architecture major comes to your office, complaining of severe burning with urination, a fever of 101 degrees, and aching all over. She denies any upper respiratory, gastrointestinal, cardiac, or pulmonary symptoms. Her past medical history consists of severe acne. She is currently on an oral contraceptive. She has had no pregnancies or surgeries. She reports one new partner within the last month. She does not smoke but does drink occasionally. Her parents are both in good health. On examination you see a young woman appearing slightly ill. Her temperature is 3 and her pulse and blood pressure are unremarkable. Her head, ears, eyes, nose, throat, cardiac, pulmonary, and abdominal examinations are unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal nodes shows lymphadenopathy bilaterally. On visualization of the perineum there are more than 10 shallow ulcers along each side of the vulva. Speculum and bimanual examination are unremarkable for findings, although she is very tender at the introitus. Urine analysis has some white blood cells but no red blood cells or bacteria. Her urine pregnancy test is negative. Which disorder of the vulva is most likely in this case?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital herpes. The patient's symptoms of severe burning with urination, fever, lymphadenopathy, and multiple shallow ulcers along the vulva are classic for genital herpes. The new sexual partner and absence of red blood cells or bacteria in the urine support a sexually transmitted infection. The presence of white blood cells in urine and absence of other systemic symptoms help differentiate it from other choices. Condylomata acuminata (choice B) present as warty lesions and do not cause the systemic symptoms described. Syphilitic chancre (choice C) would typically present as a single painless ulcer and is unlikely given the multiple shallow ulcers described. Epidermoid cyst (choice D) does not match the clinical presentation of fever, burning with urination, and lymphadenopathy.
Question 8 of 9
Disorders in the kidneys and the ureters may cause pain in all of the following areas except the:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Suprapubic. Disorders in the kidneys and ureters typically cause pain in the flank, abdomen, and back due to the location of these organs. The kidneys are located in the flank region, so kidney issues may cause flank pain. Ureters run down towards the bladder, so issues in this area can cause pain in the abdomen and back. Suprapubic pain usually indicates issues with the bladder or lower urinary tract, not the kidneys or ureters. Therefore, suprapubic pain is not typically associated with disorders in the kidneys and ureters.
Question 9 of 9
An 86-year-old female comes to your office for a wellness visit. Her blood pressure is 125/70 mmHg, pulse 69 beats per minute, and respiratory rate 18 breaths per minute. She is well-appearing and reports she is up to date on her routine vaccinations. She introduces her partner of 35 years, whom she would like to make medical decisions for her in case she becomes unable to make decisions for herself. She reports that she and her partner are not married. She asks if she needs any further documentation to ensure her goals of care are followed.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Advise them to file an advanced directive. An advanced directive is a legal document that allows individuals to specify their healthcare preferences in advance, including who they want to make medical decisions for them if they are unable to do so. In this scenario, since the patient and her partner are not married, it is important for her to have an advanced directive in place to ensure that her partner is legally recognized as the decision-maker. This documentation will help ensure her goals of care are followed in case she becomes incapacitated. Choice A (Advise them to complete a POLST) is incorrect because a POLST (Physician Orders for Life-Sustaining Treatment) form is used to specify a patient's wishes for end-of-life care, not for designating a medical decision-maker. Choice B (Advise them that they have adequate documentation to be recognized legally) is incorrect because without an advanced directive, there may be legal challenges to the partner's authority to make medical decisions