Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because conveying respect for differences helps build trust and encourages patients to share their perspectives openly. This fosters a positive patient-provider relationship and enhances communication. Choice A is incorrect as patients have unique behaviors. Choice C is incorrect as cultural expectations do not fully explain individual differences. Choice D is incorrect as expressing one's culture is not solely dependent on exposure to Canadian values.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Do not use underarm deodorant. This is important because deodorant can interfere with the mammogram results, leading to false readings. It is crucial to have a clean and uncontaminated image for an accurate diagnosis. Choice A is incorrect as it can affect the quality of the mammogram. Choices C and D are irrelevant to the mammography procedure and not necessary instructions for the client.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients with renal disease may have impaired kidney function, leading to difficulty in regulating potassium levels. High potassium intake can further burden the kidneys, potentially causing hyperkalemia. Clients on diuretic therapy (choice A) may actually need to monitor potassium levels due to potential electrolyte imbalances. Clients with an ileostomy (choice B) typically do not have issues with potassium absorption. Clients with metabolic alkalosis (choice C) may have potassium shifts but do not necessarily need to avoid high-potassium foods unless specifically advised by their healthcare provider.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a CT scan. This is the priority action because it helps determine if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, guiding treatment decisions. Monitoring blood pressure (B) is important but not the priority. Administering aspirin (C) can be considered after confirming the type of stroke. Administering thrombolytics (D) is indicated for ischemic stroke but should only be done after ruling out hemorrhagic stroke with a CT scan.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a crucial parameter to monitor for clients on anticoagulant therapy, as it measures the effectiveness of the medication in preventing blood clots. By monitoring INR levels, the nurse can ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting complications. Choice A (Monitor platelet count) is incorrect because anticoagulant therapy does not directly affect platelet count, and monitoring platelets is more relevant for clients on antiplatelet therapy. Choice C (Monitor bleeding) is partially correct, but focusing solely on monitoring bleeding may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to anticoagulant therapy. Choice D (Monitor renal function) is incorrect as anticoagulant therapy primarily affects coagulation factors and not renal function. Renal function monitoring may be necessary for certain medications but is not a primary consideration for anticoagulant therapy.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Stopping insulin once blood glucose is normal is incorrect as insulin is crucial for managing diabetes even when blood glucose levels are within the target range. Insulin helps regulate blood sugar levels consistently, and stopping it abruptly can lead to hyperglycemia. Choices A, B, and D are correct statements indicating good diabetes management practices. Monitoring blood glucose levels, exercising regularly, and following a balanced diet are essential for controlling blood sugar levels and overall health.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the recommended initial medication for chest pain in a client with a history of myocardial infarction. It helps dilate blood vessels, improving blood flow to the heart, and reducing chest pain. Aspirin (choice B) is also usually given to reduce blood clot formation, but nitroglycerin is the priority for immediate relief. Morphine (choice C) may be used if nitroglycerin is ineffective, and beta blockers (choice D) are typically used for long-term management of heart conditions, not for immediate relief of chest pain.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Oxygenation is the priority in stroke management to ensure adequate oxygen supply to the brain. Oxygen therapy can help reduce hypoxia, which is crucial in the acute phase of a stroke. Administering aspirin (B) is important but comes after ensuring oxygenation. Administering thrombolytics (C) requires proper assessment and diagnostic confirmation, not an immediate priority. Placing the client in a supine position (D) may worsen stroke symptoms if there is compromised blood flow, so it is not recommended as the initial action.