Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

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health assessment test bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which fetal heart monitor pattern can indicate cord compression?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: variable decelerations. Variable decelerations are abrupt decreases in fetal heart rate that vary in depth, duration, and timing, which can indicate cord compression. The variability in these decelerations suggests that the umbilical cord is being compressed intermittently. Early decelerations (B) are usually caused by head compression during contractions and mirror the contractions, not indicating cord compression. Bradycardia (C) is a slow heart rate, which can be caused by various factors but is not specific to cord compression. Tachycardia (D) is a fast heart rate, which can also be caused by various factors but is not typically associated with cord compression.

Question 2 of 9

What is the most effective action for a client with suspected sepsis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer antibiotics. Antibiotics are crucial in treating sepsis as they help to fight the underlying infection causing the condition. Administering antibiotics promptly can prevent the infection from spreading and worsening. Fluids (choices B and C) are important for treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and support organ function, but antibiotics are the primary intervention to target the infection. Administering oxygen (choice D) may be necessary to support respiratory function in septic patients, but it is not the most effective action to address the underlying infection.

Question 3 of 9

Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following a lung resection. The nurse should monitor for which of the following signs of complications?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased respiratory rate and dyspnea. After a lung resection, complications like atelectasis or pneumonia can occur, leading to respiratory distress. Monitoring respiratory rate and dyspnea helps detect these issues early. Incorrect choices: B: Constipation and abdominal distension are not directly related to post-operative lung resection complications. C: Nausea and vomiting are more likely related to gastrointestinal issues rather than lung resection. D: Muscle weakness and fatigue are not specific signs of complications following a lung resection.

Question 5 of 9

A nurse is assessing a patient who has a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following findings would be most concerning?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Shortness of breath and chest pain. This is most concerning because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a serious complication of DVT where a blood clot travels to the lungs. Shortness of breath and chest pain are signs of compromised respiratory and cardiac function. A: Pain and swelling in the leg are common symptoms of DVT but not as concerning as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism. B: Redness and warmth around the affected area are typical signs of inflammation associated with DVT but do not indicate a life-threatening complication like a pulmonary embolism. D: Pale skin and decreased pulse in the affected leg could be signs of compromised circulation due to DVT, but they are not as immediately life-threatening as symptoms of a pulmonary embolism.

Question 6 of 9

What is the priority action for a client who presents with symptoms of stroke?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Perform a CT scan. This is the priority action because it helps determine if the stroke is ischemic or hemorrhagic, guiding treatment decisions. Monitoring blood pressure (B) is important but not the priority. Administering aspirin (C) can be considered after confirming the type of stroke. Administering thrombolytics (D) is indicated for ischemic stroke but should only be done after ruling out hemorrhagic stroke with a CT scan.

Question 7 of 9

What is the most effective treatment for a client with acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS)?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia, and oxygen therapy is essential to improve oxygenation. Administering corticosteroids (B) is not recommended as they do not improve outcomes in ARDS. Monitoring serum glucose (C) is unrelated to the treatment of ARDS. Administering pain relief (D) is important for patient comfort but does not address the underlying hypoxemia in ARDS. Oxygen therapy is the primary treatment to support respiratory function and improve oxygen delivery in ARDS.

Question 8 of 9

The nurse is conducting a physical assessment. The data the nurse would collect vary depending on what?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Step 1: The nurse should prioritize collecting data based on the client's acuity to address immediate needs and ensure patient safety. Step 2: Acuity determines the urgency and intensity of care required, guiding the assessment focus. Step 3: Time available or client cooperation may influence the depth of assessment but do not dictate the data collected. Step 4: The onset of symptoms is important for history-taking but not the primary factor in determining assessment data.

Question 9 of 9

What does a focused assessment primarily address?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Specific client issues. A focused assessment is a targeted examination that addresses specific client concerns or issues. By focusing on a particular aspect of the client's health, healthcare providers can gather relevant information efficiently and effectively. This approach allows for a more in-depth evaluation of the specific problem at hand, leading to better treatment outcomes. Choice A (Comprehensive physical findings) is incorrect because a focused assessment does not aim to gather information on all physical findings, but rather on specific issues. Choice C (Multiple body systems) is incorrect because a focused assessment is more narrow in scope and typically focuses on one area or system of the body. Choice D (Long-term wellness goals) is incorrect as a focused assessment is more immediate and targeted towards addressing current issues rather than long-term goals.

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