Which factors increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: all of the above. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behaviors. Certain sexual practices like unprotected sex or having multiple partners increase STD risk. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs. Therefore, all factors (A, B, C) collectively increase the risk of STDs.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Secure the airway. This is the highest priority for a nurse treating a client with a stab wound to the chest because airway management is crucial for ensuring the client can breathe effectively. If the airway is compromised, the client may not be able to oxygenate properly, leading to serious complications or even death. Administering oxygen (choice B) can help with oxygenation but is not as critical as ensuring the airway is clear. Turning the client (choice C) or applying an abdominal binder (choice D) are not appropriate actions for a stab wound to the chest and would not address the immediate life-threatening issue of airway compromise.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Huntington's chorea. Huntington's chorea is a genetic disorder characterized by involuntary, writhing, and twisting movements of the face and limbs, known as chorea. This is due to degeneration of certain brain cells. Epilepsy (A) involves seizures, not specific movements. Parkinson's (B) is characterized by tremors and rigidity, not chorea. Multiple sclerosis (C) affects the central nervous system, causing a variety of symptoms, but not typically chorea.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the patient demonstrates orientation to person (knows their name), place (knows they are at the hospital in Victoria), and time (knows it is February of a new year – 2009). This indicates intact orientation across all three domains. Choice A is incorrect as the patient is unsure of their location and the year. Choice B is incorrect as the patient is confused about the date. Choice C is incorrect as the patient is uncertain about the date and only guesses their location.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess the communication method preferred by the patient. This response is appropriate because it demonstrates person-centered care by respecting the patient's communication preferences. By assessing the patient's preferred communication method, the nurse can effectively communicate with the patient and provide the best care. Summary of other choices: B: Requesting a sign language interpreter may not be necessary if the patient does not use sign language. C: Using loud and exaggerated facial movements can be demeaning and ineffective in communication. D: Assuming all older adults have hearing deficits is a stereotype and may not be accurate for every individual.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Kidney function tests. In diabetic nephropathy, the kidneys are affected, leading to impaired kidney function. Monitoring kidney function tests such as serum creatinine and glomerular filtration rate is crucial to assess the progression of the disease and guide treatment. Blood pressure measurement (B) is important in managing diabetic nephropathy but does not directly assess kidney function. Blood glucose levels (C) are essential in managing diabetes overall but do not specifically address nephropathy. Urine output monitoring (D) is important for assessing kidney function but does not provide as comprehensive information as kidney function tests.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because it helps differentiate between orthopnea (difficulty breathing when lying down) and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea (sudden awakening due to difficulty breathing). By asking about worsening symptoms when lying down, the nurse can assess if the patient has orthopnea, a classic symptom of heart failure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not specifically target the nighttime breathing difficulty associated with heart failure.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs causing pulmonary edema. This can result in symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. Monitoring for pulmonary edema is crucial in heart failure management to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart function. Rationale: A: Hypoglycemia - While patients with heart failure may be at risk for metabolic abnormalities, hypoglycemia is not a common complication directly related to heart failure. C: Anemia - Anemia can occur in heart failure due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, but it is not a direct complication that requires immediate monitoring like pulmonary edema. D: Hypertension - Heart failure is characterized by a reduced ability of the heart to pump blood effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output. Therefore, hypertension is not typically a complication seen in heart failure patients.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: unexplained vaginal bleeding. This is a contraindication for hormone replacement therapy as it may indicate underlying conditions that need to be addressed before starting hormone therapy to avoid potential risks. Vaginal bleeding could be a sign of endometrial hyperplasia or cancer, which can be exacerbated by hormone therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not contraindications for hormone replacement therapy. Family history of stroke may influence the choice of therapy but not necessarily contraindicate it. Ovaries removed before age 45 and frequent hot flashes/night sweats are common indications for hormone replacement therapy to alleviate symptoms of menopause.