Which factors increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

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Question 1 of 9

Which factors increase the risk of sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: all of the above. Alcohol use can impair judgment leading to risky sexual behaviors. Certain sexual practices like unprotected sex or having multiple partners increase STD risk. Oral contraception does not protect against STDs. Therefore, all factors (A, B, C) collectively increase the risk of STDs.

Question 2 of 9

A nurse is teaching a patient with diabetes about managing diabetic neuropathy. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "I can wear tight shoes to avoid blisters." Tight shoes can increase pressure on the feet, leading to blisters and worsening neuropathy symptoms. A: Inspecting feet daily is important to catch any issues early. C: Walking barefoot can increase the risk of injuries. D: Maintaining blood glucose levels within target range is crucial for managing diabetic neuropathy. In summary, the incorrect choices either provide important preventive measures or focus on key aspects of diabetes management, while the correct choice suggests a harmful behavior that can exacerbate neuropathy symptoms.

Question 3 of 9

Which organ is responsible for the extensive metabolism of acetaminophen?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Liver. The liver is responsible for the extensive metabolism of acetaminophen through various pathways, including glucuronidation, sulfation, and oxidation. It converts acetaminophen into less toxic metabolites for elimination. The kidneys (B) primarily filter blood and regulate fluid balance; the lungs (C) are involved in gas exchange; and the pancreas (D) produces digestive enzymes and insulin, not involved in acetaminophen metabolism. Therefore, the liver is the correct choice for this question.

Question 4 of 9

When interviewing a patient, it is important for the nurse to obtain some basic history. Which of the following statements should be explored more fully during an interview? The patient states that he:

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Never did too good in school." This statement should be explored further during an interview because it can provide insights into the patient's educational background, potential learning difficulties, or past experiences that may impact their health literacy or understanding of medical information. Understanding the patient's educational history can help the nurse tailor communication and education strategies effectively. A: "Sleeps like a baby" is not as critical for further exploration as it pertains to the patient's sleep quality. B: "Has no health problems" is important information but does not require immediate further exploration. D: "Is currently not taking any medication" is important for medication reconciliation but does not warrant immediate further exploration in this context.

Question 5 of 9

When formulating diagnostic statements, what would the nurse use?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Diagnostic reasoning. When formulating diagnostic statements, nurses use diagnostic reasoning to analyze data, identify patterns, and make accurate clinical judgments. This process involves critical thinking and synthesizing information to reach a conclusion. Physical assessment skills (C) are important in data collection but not the primary focus in formulating diagnostic statements. Rationale (A) refers to providing reasons or justifications and is not directly related to the diagnostic process. American Nurses Association recommendations (B) may guide nursing practice but are not specifically used in formulating diagnostic statements.

Question 6 of 9

What is the first intervention when a client is showing signs of shock after surgery?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor for arrhythmias. This is because in a client showing signs of shock after surgery, the priority is to assess for any cardiac complications such as arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Monitoring for arrhythmias allows prompt identification and intervention. Administering a blood transfusion (A) may be necessary in some cases of shock but is not the first intervention. Administering oxygen (C) may also be necessary, but addressing cardiac complications takes precedence. Encouraging deep breathing (D) is not a priority in managing shock-related complications.

Question 7 of 9

A nurse is providing education to a patient about managing hypertension. Which of the following statements by the patient indicates the need for further education?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because stopping medication once blood pressure returns to normal can lead to a relapse of hypertension. Step 1: Educate the patient that hypertension is a chronic condition requiring long-term management. Step 2: Explain the importance of continuing medication even when blood pressure is controlled. Step 3: Emphasize the risks of stopping medication abruptly. Other choices are incorrect because they promote positive behaviors for hypertension management: A: Monitoring blood pressure is essential. B: Taking medication consistently is crucial. C: Avoiding high-sodium foods helps control blood pressure.

Question 8 of 9

Which of the following actions is the nurse's priority when caring for a client with a suspected stroke?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor the client's ECG. This is the priority because it helps in detecting any cardiac abnormalities or arrhythmias which are common in stroke patients. Assessing neurologic status (A) is important but monitoring the ECG takes precedence. Starting an IV line and administering thrombolytics (B) should be done as per protocol but is not the immediate priority. Providing emotional support (D) is important, but ensuring the client's cardiac status is stable is crucial in the acute phase of stroke.

Question 9 of 9

A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of heart failure. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary edema. In heart failure, the heart is unable to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs causing pulmonary edema. This can result in symptoms such as shortness of breath, coughing, and wheezing. Monitoring for pulmonary edema is crucial in heart failure management to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart function. Rationale: A: Hypoglycemia - While patients with heart failure may be at risk for metabolic abnormalities, hypoglycemia is not a common complication directly related to heart failure. C: Anemia - Anemia can occur in heart failure due to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood, but it is not a direct complication that requires immediate monitoring like pulmonary edema. D: Hypertension - Heart failure is characterized by a reduced ability of the heart to pump blood effectively, leading to decreased cardiac output. Therefore, hypertension is not typically a complication seen in heart failure patients.

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