ATI RN
Immune System ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which factor is primarily responsible for the division of bacterial populations into specific zones within sediments?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: free oxygen availability. In sediment environments, free oxygen availability plays a crucial role in determining bacterial population distribution due to oxygen gradients. Bacteria that require oxygen will be found in aerobic zones where oxygen is present, while anaerobic bacteria will thrive in zones with limited or no oxygen. This division is primarily responsible for the spatial organization of bacterial populations within sediments. Choice A: Predation by protozoans is not primarily responsible for division of bacterial populations within sediments as it focuses on interactions between different organisms rather than the environmental factor of oxygen availability. Choice C: While competition for suitable electron acceptors is important for microbial communities, it is not the primary factor responsible for the division of bacterial populations within sediments. Choice D: Cometabolism of organic compounds refers to the metabolism of compounds alongside the primary substrate, and it is not directly related to the spatial distribution of bacterial populations within sediments based on oxygen availability.
Question 2 of 5
EcoRI restriction endonuclease reactions produce fragments with
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: EcoRI recognizes the palindromic sequence GAATTC and cuts between G and A on both strands, producing 5' cohesive ends. Cohesive ends can base-pair with complementary ends, facilitating DNA ligation. Blunt ends (choice B) are produced by enzymes that cut both DNA strands at the same position. Choice A is incorrect as EcoRI produces 5' cohesive ends, not 3' cohesive ends. Choice D is incorrect as EcoRI does produce cohesive ends.
Question 3 of 5
The annotation B refers to which DNA component?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Vector DNA. In genetic engineering, a vector is a DNA molecule used to carry foreign genetic material into another cell. Plasmid DNA (choice B) is a type of vector, but not all vectors are plasmids. Recombinant DNA (choice A) refers to DNA that has been artificially created by combining DNA from different sources. Insert DNA (choice D) is the foreign genetic material that is inserted into a vector. Therefore, the most specific and accurate choice is C, Vector DNA, as it encompasses all types of vectors used in genetic engineering.
Question 4 of 5
A male client is suspected of an immune system disorder. Which of the following important factors will the nurse document while assessing the client?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pharmacology, understanding the importance of a comprehensive drug history is crucial when assessing a client suspected of an immune system disorder. The correct answer, B) The client’s drug history, is essential because certain medications can suppress the immune system, leading to immune dysfunction or disorders. By documenting the client's drug history, the nurse can identify any potential medications that may be contributing to the immune system disorder or interactions that could exacerbate the condition. Option A, the client’s diet, while important for overall health and immune function, is not the priority when suspecting an immune system disorder. Option C, the client’s ability to produce antibodies, is more of a diagnostic aspect rather than an initial assessment factor. Option D, the client’s family members’ history of chronic diseases, though relevant for genetic predispositions, is not as immediately pertinent as the client's own drug history. Educationally, this question highlights the significance of a thorough assessment in pharmacology, emphasizing the impact of medications on immune system function. It underscores the need for nurses to consider all aspects of a client's history to provide holistic care and make informed decisions regarding treatment and management of immune system disorders.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is the most severe complication among clients with allergies,regardless of type?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Anaphylactic shock and angioneurotic edema. Anaphylactic shock is the most severe complication among clients with allergies, regardless of the type of allergy. It is a life-threatening allergic reaction that can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure, difficulty breathing, and potential organ failure. Angioneurotic edema is also a serious condition characterized by rapid swelling of the deeper layers of the skin, often involving the face and airway. Option A) Bronchitis is not the most severe complication of allergies. Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchial tubes and is usually caused by viral or bacterial infections. Option B) Cardiac arrest is a serious medical emergency but is not directly related to allergic reactions. It is the sudden loss of heart function, breathing, and consciousness. Option D) Asthma and nasal polyps are common allergic conditions but are not as immediately life-threatening as anaphylactic shock. Asthma is a chronic respiratory condition characterized by inflammation and narrowing of the airways, while nasal polyps are non-cancerous growths that can form in the nasal passages. In an educational context, understanding the most severe complications of allergies is crucial for healthcare professionals to recognize and respond to allergic reactions promptly and effectively. Educating patients on the signs and symptoms of anaphylaxis and the importance of carrying an epinephrine auto-injector can help prevent severe outcomes in individuals with allergies.