ATI RN
Principles of Pharmacology Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which factor accounts for the increased risk for drug reactions among clients aged 65 years and older?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because physiologic changes in older adults affect all pharmacokinetic processes, leading to increased risk for drug reactions. These changes include decreased renal function, altered drug metabolism, reduced liver enzyme activity, and changes in body composition. Option A is incorrect because the blood-brain barrier remains intact with age. Option C is incorrect as older adults have decreased drug-metabolizing enzymes. Option D is incorrect because while immune response may decline with age, it is not the primary factor contributing to increased drug reactions in older adults.
Question 2 of 5
When considering the half-life of naloxone, what are the implications for this medication therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the half-life of naloxone is relatively short, typically around 30-81 minutes. This short half-life means that the effects of naloxone wear off quickly, necessitating repeated doses to maintain its therapeutic effects in reversing opioid overdose. Choice B is incorrect because an increase in dosage is not necessarily required due to the short half-life of naloxone. Choice C is incorrect because as long as naloxone is still effective in reversing opioid overdose, there is no need for a different antidote solely based on the decreasing serum levels of naloxone. Choice D is incorrect because naloxone is an effective antidote for opioid overdose when administered correctly, despite its short half-life.
Question 3 of 5
A client in cardiovascular collapse requires pharmacologic interventions. What route of administration is most likely appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Intravenous. In cardiovascular collapse, immediate action is crucial. Intravenous administration ensures rapid delivery of medications directly into the bloodstream, achieving quick onset of action. Oral route is too slow, rectal route may be unreliable, and topical route is not suitable for immediate systemic effects. Intravenous route is the most appropriate in this critical situation.
Question 4 of 5
Drugs that have a significant first-pass effect:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because drugs with a significant first-pass effect are extensively metabolized by the liver upon oral administration, leading to reduced bioavailability and potentially minimal therapeutic effects. This is due to the high enzymatic activity in the liver that rapidly breaks down the drug before it reaches the systemic circulation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because drugs with a significant first-pass effect are not limited to oral administration only, do not bypass hepatic circulation, and are not necessarily converted to more active and fat-soluble forms by the liver.
Question 5 of 5
The NP chooses to give cephalexin every 8 hours based on knowledge of the drug’s:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Biological half-life. The biological half-life of a drug determines the duration of action and how frequently it needs to be administered. Cephalexin has a short half-life of around 1 hour, so it needs to be given every 8 hours to maintain therapeutic levels. Explanation for why the other choices are incorrect: A: Propensity to go to the target receptor - While this is important for drug efficacy, it does not dictate the dosing frequency. C: Pharmacodynamics - While pharmacodynamics refers to how a drug works in the body, it does not directly impact the dosing interval. D: Safety and side effects - While safety and side effects are important considerations, they do not determine the dosing frequency.