Which explains why infants who are delivered via cesarean section before the start of labor have more difficulty transitioning to extrauterine life?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because infants delivered via cesarean section before labor may not have had the opportunity to expel amniotic fluid from their lungs through the vaginal passage, leading to respiratory distress. This residual fluid can hinder the initiation of spontaneous respirations, causing difficulty in transitioning to extrauterine life. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because hyperthermia from warm IV fluids, respiratory depression from regional anesthesia, and reduced placental blood flow from maternal position are not primary factors affecting the infant's ability to transition to extrauterine life in this scenario.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because the multigravida uterus has undergone labor before, making muscle coordination more efficient. This allows for faster and more coordinated contractions, leading to precipitous labor. Choice A is incorrect because the cervix does not weaken after each delivery. Choice B is incorrect as simultaneous dilation and effacement are not specific to multiparous women. Choice D is incorrect because the ability to recognize labor onset is not a determining factor in the occurrence of precipitous labor.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sitting on birthing ball. This position helps to open up the pelvis, allowing gravity to assist in descent of the baby. It also promotes optimal positioning for the baby, reducing the risk of malpresentation. The other choices (A, B, D) do not provide the same benefits in terms of promoting optimal fetal positioning and utilizing gravity to aid in labor progress. Ambulation with assistance may not provide as much support for the pelvis, squatting with support from the partner may not be as stable or comfortable for the mother, and resting on hands and knees may not encourage as much engagement of the baby's head in the pelvis.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B (A uterine resting tone of 30 mm Hg) because a high uterine resting tone indicates uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to uterine rupture, fetal distress, and compromised blood flow to the placenta. A higher resting tone of 30 mm Hg is concerning compared to the normal range of 12-18 mm Hg. Choice A (A uterine resting tone of 17 mm Hg) is within the normal range, so it is not as concerning as a higher resting tone. Choices C (Contractions every 3 minutes lasting 60 seconds) and D (Contractions every 5 minutes lasting 60 seconds) describe the frequency and duration of contractions, which are important but are not as immediately concerning as a high uterine resting tone.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Rationale for Choice B (Correct Answer): - A 21-year-old gravida 2, para 1 with one previous low-transverse cesarean section for CPD is the best candidate for TOLAC. - Low-transverse incisions have the lowest risk of uterine rupture during labor. - CPD is not a contraindication for TOLAC. - Young age and low parity are favorable factors for successful TOLAC. - Therefore, this candidate has the highest likelihood of a successful VBAC. Summary for Other Choices: - Choice A: Classical cesarean section carries a high risk of uterine rupture; prematurity increases this risk. - Choice C: Low-transverse incision is favorable, but the indication for the previous cesarean (late decelerations) may indicate an ongoing fetal concern. - Choice D: T-shaped incision increases the risk of uterine rupture; macrosomia is a risk factor for failed TOL