ATI RN
microbiology chapter 14 test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which enzyme is one of the most important and constant criteria for pathogenicity of staphylococcus aureus?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: plasma coagulase. This enzyme is essential for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus as it can convert fibrinogen to fibrin, forming a protective barrier around the bacteria. This helps the bacteria evade the host's immune system. Beta lactamase (A) is not directly related to pathogenicity but rather resistance to beta-lactam antibiotics. Catalase (C) is produced by many bacteria, including Staphylococcus aureus, but it is not a specific indicator of pathogenicity. Choice D is incorrect as plasma coagulase is indeed an important criterion for the pathogenicity of Staphylococcus aureus.
Question 2 of 9
A patient with fever and diarrhea had a stool sample that revealed Gram-negative rods that fermented lactose. What is the most likely causative agent?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is a Gram-negative rod that ferments lactose. It is a common cause of gastroenteritis presenting with fever and diarrhea. Salmonella typhi does not ferment lactose and causes typhoid fever. Shigella dysenteriae causes dysentery and does not ferment lactose. Proteus vulgaris does not typically cause gastroenteritis and is not known for lactose fermentation.
Question 3 of 9
Which bacteria is commonly associated with urinary tract infections (UTIs)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Escherichia coli. E. coli is commonly associated with UTIs due to its ability to colonize the urinary tract. It possesses adhesins that allow it to attach to the bladder wall, causing infection. E. coli is also a common inhabitant of the intestinal tract, making it easily able to migrate to the urinary system. Explanation of incorrect choices: B: Clostridium botulinum - This bacterium causes botulism, a rare foodborne illness, not UTIs. C: Staphylococcus aureus - Often associated with skin infections and abscesses, not UTIs. D: Bacillus cereus - Known for causing food poisoning, not UTIs.
Question 4 of 9
A patient with pulmonary tuberculosis is prescribed the most effective antituberculous antibiotic. Name this drug:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Rifampicin. Rifampicin is a first-line antibiotic for treating pulmonary tuberculosis due to its high efficacy against Mycobacterium tuberculosis. It works by inhibiting bacterial RNA synthesis. Furasolidone (A) is not commonly used for tuberculosis, Bactrim (B) is not a first-line drug for tuberculosis, and Streptocide (C) is not as effective as Rifampicin.
Question 5 of 9
Bacillus intoxication is caused by:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bacillus cereus. Bacillus intoxication is typically caused by Bacillus cereus, which is a common foodborne pathogen. This bacterium produces toxins that can lead to gastrointestinal illness when ingested. Bacillus subtilis (A) and Bacillus thuringiensis (B) are not known to cause intoxication in humans. Bacillus anthracis (C) causes anthrax, not intoxication. Therefore, Bacillus cereus is the correct choice for Bacillus intoxication.
Question 6 of 9
A man died from an acute infectious disease accompanied by fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash on the skin and mucous membranes as well as by acute renal insufficiency. Histological examination of renal tissue (stained by Romanovsky-Giemsa method) revealed some convoluted bacteria looking like C and S letters. What bacteria were revealed?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Leptospira. The key features pointing to Leptospira are the presence of convoluted bacteria resembling C and S letters, which is characteristic of Leptospira species. Leptospirosis presents with fever, jaundice, haemorrhagic rash, and acute renal insufficiency. The other choices (B: Treponema, C: Spirilla, D: Borrelia) do not match the histological description or the clinical presentation of the case. Treponema is associated with syphilis, Spirilla with genus Spirochaeta, and Borrelia with Lyme disease, none of which match the given scenario.
Question 7 of 9
In the micropreparation made from patient's regional lymph node punctate and stained according to Romanovsky-Giemsa method, the doctor found out thin microorganisms with 12-14 equal ringlets and pale- pink sharp pointes 10-13 mkm in length. The pathogen of what disease is it about?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The thin microorganisms described with 12-14 equal ringlets and pale-pink sharp points are characteristic of Borrelia spirochetes, the causative agent of relapsing fever. The ringlet appearance corresponds to the characteristic coiled structure of Borrelia spirochetes. The length of 10-13 mkm falls within the typical size range of Borrelia spirochetes. This pathogen is commonly identified in Romanovsky-Giemsa stained samples from patients with relapsing fever. Summary of other choices: A: Leishmaniasis - Leishmania parasites are larger and do not have the described ringlets or pale-pink sharp points. B: Leptospirosis - Leptospira bacteria are not described as having ringlets or pale-pink sharp points. C: Surra - Surra is caused by Trypanosoma evansi, and the description does not match the characteristics of this parasite.
Question 8 of 9
A woman gave birth to a stillborn baby with numerous malformations. What protozoan disease could cause intrauterine death?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Toxoplasmosis. Toxoplasmosis is caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy leading to stillbirth and malformations. This parasite can cross the placenta and infect the fetus, causing severe complications. Leishmaniasis (B), Malaria (C), and Amebiasis (D) are not known to cause intrauterine death or malformations in the same way as Toxoplasmosis. Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies, Malaria by mosquitoes, and Amebiasis by contaminated food or water.
Question 9 of 9
A duodenal content smear of a patient with indigestion contains protozoa 10-18 mcm large. They have piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, two symmetrically located nuclei in the broadened part of body. What kind of the lowest organisms is it?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lamblia. The description matches the characteristics of Giardia lamblia - a protozoan parasite that causes giardiasis. The piriform bodies, 4 pairs of filaments, and two symmetrically located nuclei are specific to Giardia lamblia. It is important to differentiate it from the other choices. Dysentery ameba (choice B) typically has a single nucleus and lacks the specific characteristics described. Trichomonas (choice C) is a flagellated protozoan with different morphology and does not match the given description. Intestinal ameba (choice D) such as Entamoeba histolytica usually has a single nucleus and different body shape compared to the described organism.