ATI RN
ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance is commonly seen in patients receiving furosemide?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. This electrolyte imbalance necessitates close monitoring to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Hypercalcemia is not a common side effect of furosemide. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with other medications like thiazide diuretics. Hyperkalemia is the opposite electrolyte imbalance and is not typically seen with furosemide use.
Question 2 of 9
A client with rheumatoid arthritis is experiencing morning stiffness. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action the nurse should take is to apply cold packs to the affected joints in the morning. Rheumatoid arthritis is characterized by inflammation, and applying cold packs can help reduce inflammation and stiffness in the joints. Encouraging the client to avoid physical activity in the morning (Choice A) may worsen stiffness, as movement is beneficial for joint mobility. While NSAIDs (Choice B) can help with pain and inflammation, applying cold packs directly to the affected joints is more targeted and effective. Performing passive range-of-motion exercises (Choice D) can be helpful, but applying cold packs is the priority for reducing inflammation and stiffness.
Question 3 of 9
Which medication is commonly prescribed for a patient with a history of heart failure?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is the correct answer. It is a common diuretic used in patients with heart failure to reduce fluid overload. Metoprolol (Choice B) is a beta-blocker often prescribed to manage heart failure symptoms by improving heart function. Digoxin (Choice C) is used in heart failure patients to help the heart beat stronger and with a more regular rhythm. Aspirin (Choice D) is not typically prescribed for heart failure but may be used in patients with heart disease for its antiplatelet effects.
Question 4 of 9
A nurse is assessing a client who has been taking haloperidol for several years. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse recognize as a long-term side effect of this medication?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Lipsmacking is a common sign of tardive dyskinesia, a long-term side effect of haloperidol. Tardive dyskinesia is characterized by repetitive, involuntary, purposeless movements such as lipsmacking, tongue protrusion, and facial grimacing. Agranulocytosis (choice B) is a potential side effect of antipsychotic medications but is not specifically associated with haloperidol. Clang association (choice C) is a form of disorganized speech seen in conditions like schizophrenia but is not a side effect of haloperidol. Alopecia (choice D) refers to hair loss and is not a common long-term side effect of haloperidol.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving warfarin therapy for atrial fibrillation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse report to the provider?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. An INR of 1.8 is below the therapeutic range for a client receiving warfarin, indicating a potential risk of blood clots. This value should be reported to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the warfarin dosage. Choices B, C, and D are within normal ranges and do not directly relate to the effectiveness or safety of warfarin therapy in this scenario, making them less urgent to report.
Question 6 of 9
A patient refused a newly open fentanyl patch. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a patient refuses a newly open fentanyl patch is to ask another nurse to witness the disposal of the new patch. This is essential for accountability and ensuring proper disposal procedures are followed. Choice B is incorrect because disposing of the patch in a sharps container without a witness does not ensure proper accountability. Choice C is incorrect as sending the patch back to the pharmacy is not the appropriate action for disposal. Choice D is incorrect because although documenting the refusal is important, it is also crucial to ensure proper disposal of the unused patch by having another nurse witness it.
Question 7 of 9
How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct way for a healthcare provider to monitor a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to check for leg swelling. Leg swelling is a common symptom of DVT and monitoring for this sign is crucial for early detection and intervention. Encouraging ambulation may be beneficial for preventing DVT but is not the recommended method for monitoring an existing condition. Checking for redness may be useful in cases of superficial thrombophlebitis but is not specific to DVT. Monitoring oxygen saturation is more relevant for respiratory or cardiovascular conditions, not for DVT.
Question 8 of 9
While caring for a newborn under phototherapy lights, which of the following is an appropriate nursing action?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to ensure the eye shield is covering the eyes. Protecting the newborn's eyes from exposure to direct light is crucial during phototherapy to prevent potential eye damage. Applying lotion to the exposed skin (choice B) is not recommended as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the phototherapy. Offering glucose water between feedings (choice C) is not necessary and may not be suitable for a newborn undergoing treatment. Discontinuing breastfeeding during treatment (choice D) is not recommended as breast milk provides essential nutrients and hydration for the newborn, and breastfeeding should continue unless contraindicated by a specific medical condition.
Question 9 of 9
A client with diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse on managing hypoglycemia. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Consume 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate. Consuming 15 grams of a fast-acting carbohydrate, such as glucose tablets or juice, helps raise blood glucose levels quickly in cases of hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect because avoiding carbohydrate-rich foods during hypoglycemia can worsen the condition. Choice C is incorrect as drinking water does not effectively raise blood glucose levels. Choice D is incorrect as eating a snack before exercising is more related to preventing exercise-induced hypoglycemia, not managing hypoglycemia.