ATI RN
ATI RN Custom Exams Set 2 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.
Question 2 of 9
Which nutrient deficiency is most likely to be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Patients with chronic alcoholism are most likely to develop a deficiency in Vitamin B1 (thiamine) due to poor dietary intake and impaired absorption. This deficiency can lead to conditions like Wernicke's encephalopathy and Korsakoff's syndrome. While deficiencies in other vitamins can also occur in chronic alcoholism, Vitamin B1 deficiency is more commonly associated with this condition, making it the most likely nutrient deficiency in these patients. Therefore, the correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Choice D). Deficiencies in Vitamin C (Choice A), Vitamin D (Choice B), and Vitamin B12 (Choice C) can also be seen in patients with chronic alcoholism, but they are not as commonly linked to this condition compared to Vitamin B1 deficiency.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following describes a process of heat loss involving the transfer of heat from one surface to another?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Conduction is the process of heat transfer that occurs between objects or substances that are in direct contact with each other. In this process, heat is transferred from a hotter surface to a cooler surface through direct contact. This type of heat transfer does not involve the movement of the substances themselves, only the transfer of thermal energy. Choice A, Radiation, is the transfer of heat in the form of electromagnetic waves and does not require a medium. Choice C, Convection, involves the transfer of heat through the movement of fluids (liquids or gases) due to density differences. Choice D, Evaporation, is a cooling process that involves the transformation of a liquid into a gas, absorbing heat in the process.
Question 4 of 9
The nurse prepares to administer digoxin (Lanoxin) to a newborn with a diagnosis of heart failure and notes that the apical rate is 140 beats per minute. Which nursing action is appropriate?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: An apical rate of 140 bpm is within the normal range for a newborn. Digoxin is commonly used to treat heart failure by increasing the strength and efficiency of the heart's contractions. Since the heart rate is within the normal range, there is no need to hold the medication or notify the healthcare provider. Rechecking the apical rate in an hour is unnecessary as the heart rate is not alarming. Therefore, the appropriate nursing action is to administer the digoxin.
Question 5 of 9
A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of catatonic schizophrenia. What clinical finding does the nurse expect the client to exhibit?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In catatonic schizophrenia, clients commonly exhibit immobile posturing, where they may maintain a fixed position for extended periods. This could include holding rigid poses or remaining motionless. Choice A, 'Crying,' is not typically associated with catatonic schizophrenia. Choice B, 'Self-mutilation,' refers to a different behavior seen in some mental health conditions but is not a characteristic feature of catatonic schizophrenia. Choice D, 'Repetitive activities,' does not align with the typical presentation of catatonic schizophrenia, which is characterized by motor abnormalities such as immobility rather than engaging in purposeful repetitive movements.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse has given post-procedure instructions to a client who underwent a colonoscopy. Evaluation of learning would be evident if the client makes which statement(s)?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "All of the above." Evaluation of learning after a colonoscopy would be evident if the client mentions all the statements provided. Mild tenderness in the abdominal muscles, starting with a light diet and progressing to a regular diet, and experiencing gas or bloating temporarily are all expected after a colonoscopy. Therefore, all the statements are correct in demonstrating the client's understanding of the post-procedure instructions. Choices B, C, and D provide accurate information about the expected outcomes following a colonoscopy, making them incorrect answers individually but correct when combined as option A.
Question 7 of 9
Listed below are five categories that identify the responsibilities of the practical nurse manager in personnel management. Which of these categories is most appropriate for the task of 'listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints'?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Accountability in personnel management involves being answerable for one's actions and decisions, which includes listening to and addressing the suggestions and complaints of soldiers. This category focuses on the responsibility and answerability aspect of the nurse manager's role. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because personal/professional development is about growth and improvement, individual training pertains to specific skill development, and military appearance/physical condition relates to the physical presentation and fitness levels, none of which directly address the task of listening and responding to soldiers' suggestions and complaints.
Question 8 of 9
The nurse is teaching basic cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to individuals in the community. What is the correct order of basic CPR steps?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct order of basic CPR steps is as follows: first, ensure the scene is safe to approach, then assess the individual's responsiveness. After confirming the need for help, start chest compressions, then provide two rescue breaths. Option B, 'Give two rescue breaths,' is incorrect as chest compressions should be initiated before giving rescue breaths. Option C, 'Look, listen, and feel for breathing,' is also incorrect as immediate chest compressions are crucial in CPR. Option D, 'Begin chest compressions,' is partially correct but misses the crucial initial steps of ensuring scene safety and assessing responsiveness.
Question 9 of 9
Which electrolyte imbalance is a potential side effect of diuretics?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hypokalemia. Diuretics commonly cause hypokalemia due to increased urinary excretion of potassium. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is the opposite, characterized by high potassium levels and is not typically associated with diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice B) is an elevated calcium level, which is not a common side effect of diuretics. Hypomagnesemia (Choice C) is low magnesium levels, which can be a side effect of diuretics, but the most common electrolyte imbalance associated with diuretics is hypokalemia.