ATI RN
Peripheral Nervous System Drugs Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which drug was most likely prescribed for the 45-year-old man with simple partial seizure who was already on lamotrigine and needed additional therapy to decrease the frequency of attacks?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Rationale: 1. Perampanel is a non-competitive antagonist of AMPA receptors, effective for partial seizures. 2. Lamotrigine is commonly used for partial seizures, making Perampanel a suitable add-on therapy. 3. Levetiracetam, Felbamate, and Topiramate are less commonly used or not as effective for partial seizures. Summary: Levetiracetam, Felbamate, and Topiramate are not the best choices due to their lower efficacy or different mechanisms of action compared to Perampanel, which is specifically effective for partial seizures and suitable as an add-on therapy in this case.
Question 2 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient's nausea?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Omeprazole. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor used to reduce stomach acid production, which can cause nausea as a side effect. Carbidopa is used to treat Parkinson's disease, Benztropine is an anticholinergic used to treat Parkinson's symptoms, and Pramipexole is a dopamine agonist also used in Parkinson's disease. None of these drugs are known to commonly cause nausea as a side effect.
Question 3 of 5
Which of the following pairs of drugs would be most appropriate as a therapeutic regimen for the 37-year-old woman with acute psychotic state and history of seizures?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Haloperidol and clonazepam. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication used to treat acute psychotic states, while clonazepam is a benzodiazepine commonly used to manage seizures. The combination is appropriate as it addresses both the acute psychotic symptoms and the history of seizures in the patient. Explanation for incorrect choices: B: Chlorpromazine and lamotrigine - Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic, but lamotrigine is primarily used for mood disorders, not seizures. C: Clozapine and ethosuximide - Clozapine is an antipsychotic, but ethosuximide is used to treat absence seizures, not generalized seizures. D: Thioridazine and ethosuximide - Thioridazine is an antipsychotic, but ethosuximide is not commonly used for seizures in adults.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following drugs most likely caused the patient's symptoms of abnormal growth of the breast?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risperidone. Risperidone is an atypical antipsychotic known to cause side effects such as abnormal breast growth (gynecomastia) due to its effects on hormone levels. Haloperidol (A) is a typical antipsychotic with a lower likelihood of causing gynecomastia. Amitriptyline (C) is a tricyclic antidepressant that does not typically cause gynecomastia. Buspirone (D) is an anxiolytic medication that is not associated with gynecomastia. Therefore, based on the patient's symptoms, the most likely culprit is Risperidone due to its known side effect profile.
Question 5 of 5
A drug with which of the following molecular mechanisms of action would be appropriate for this patient?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Inhibition of serotonin transporter. This mechanism of action would be appropriate for this patient as it increases serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft, which can help alleviate symptoms of depression. Monoamine oxidase A inhibition (Choice A) is used for atypical depression. Serotonergic receptor blockade (Choice B) can worsen depression symptoms. Blockade of β receptors (Choice D) is used for conditions like hypertension, not depression. In summary, choice C is the most suitable for treating depression by increasing serotonin levels, while the other choices are either ineffective or potentially harmful for this condition.