Which drug type is often used as a first-line treatment for depression due to its side effect profile?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: SSRIs (e.g., fluoxetine) are first-line for depression-fewer side effects (e.g., no TCA sedation), per guidelines-versus MAOIs (diet risks), beta-blockers (HTN), or TCAs (anticholinergic). SSRIs' safety drives use.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Tamoxifen, an estrogen receptor modulator, treats breast cancer but blocks estrogen in some tissues, causing hot flashes , a common menopausal-like effect. Monitoring this ensures client comfort and adherence, as it's frequent and distressing. Hair loss is more chemotherapy-related, not tamoxifen. Nausea and diarrhea occur less often and are less specific. Hot flashes align with tamoxifen's anti-estrogenic action, a key consideration in breast cancer management where long-term use is common. This focus aids in symptom management, distinguishing it from cytotoxic effects, making A the priority side effect to monitor.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Adrenaline, or epinephrine, is a catecholamine that exerts its effects through adrenergic receptors, which are G-protein-coupled, making its action via G-proteins a true statement. Alpha receptor stimulation typically inhibits adenylate cyclase, reducing cyclic AMP (cAMP) production, which aligns with its known pharmacology and is also true. Adrenaline can indeed be administered via inhalation (e.g., for asthma), orally (though less common), and parenterally (e.g., intramuscularly in anaphylaxis), confirming this as true. However, adrenaline does have active metabolites, such as metanephrine and normetanephrine, produced via catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) metabolism, making the statement about having no active metabolites false. In cardiac arrest, it facilitates CPR by causing peripheral vasoconstriction, increasing coronary perfusion pressure, which is true. The false statement here is about the absence of active metabolites, as adrenaline's breakdown products retain some activity, a key point in understanding its pharmacokinetics and duration of effect.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: Clients prescribed verapamil should be advised to avoid grapefruit juice as it can potentiate the drug's effects, leading to adverse reactions. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of verapamil, resulting in higher blood levels of the medication and an increased risk of side effects. Instructions such as taking the medication with a full glass of water (Choice A) are not specific to verapamil and are generally recommended. While monitoring blood pressure regularly (Choice C) is important for clients on antihypertensive medications, it is not a direct concern related to verapamil. Monitoring heart rate daily (Choice D) is not a primary consideration when starting verapamil, as it is more commonly used for its effects on blood pressure and arrhythmias rather than heart rate.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: When teaching a client about Calcitonin-Salmon for Osteoporosis, the nurse should include instructions to inject the medication subcutaneously or administer it intranasally. Option A is incorrect because Calcitonin-Salmon is not typically administered intramuscularly. Option B is incorrect because it is not meant to be swallowed. Option D is incorrect as nasal bleeding is not an expected side effect with this medication.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Selegiline inhibits monoamine oxidase-B, reducing dopamine breakdown. Others, like Atropine and Amlodipine, work via different pathways or receptor mechanisms.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: When a patient's apical pulse is 58 bpm, it is below the normal range. Propranolol is a beta-blocker that can further lower the heart rate. Therefore, it is crucial to withhold the medication and notify the healthcare provider to evaluate the patient's condition. Administering Propranolol in this situation can exacerbate bradycardia, leading to serious complications. Choosing to administer the medication as prescribed (Choice A) can put the patient at risk. Administering half of the normal dose (Choice B) without healthcare provider guidance is not appropriate in this case. Considering the extended-release form of the medication (Choice C) does not address the immediate concern of bradycardia and is not the best course of action.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. When treating tuberculosis, using a combination of medications is crucial to reduce the risk of bacteria developing resistance to any single drug. This approach helps prevent treatment failure and ensures successful treatment outcomes. Choice A is incorrect because the primary purpose of using multiple medications is not related to allergic reactions. Choice C is incorrect as the risk reduction is mainly focused on bacterial resistance rather than adverse reactions. Choice D is not relevant as the purpose of taking multiple medications is not to affect the tuberculin skin test results.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: High-dose androgen therapy in females is occasionally used as a palliative treatment for certain breast cancers, particularly hormone-sensitive types, where it suppresses estrogen-driven tumor growth, offering symptom relief in advanced stages. Using androgens for athletic performance enhancement, while possible due to their anabolic effects, isn't a clinical indication and is illegal in regulated settings. Brain cancer lacks evidence supporting androgen use, as it doesn't target neurological malignancies. Sexual reassignment involves testosterone for masculinization, but high doses in a clinical context typically align with cancer care, not transition protocols. The breast cancer rationale reflects a recognized, albeit niche, therapeutic use, leveraging androgens' anti-estrogenic properties to slow disease progression, making it the most defensible clinical justification in this scenario.