ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024 Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which drug must be administered intravenously?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Interleukin 2 is administered intravenously because it is a protein that would be broken down in the digestive system if taken orally. Epoetin alfa, granulocyte colony–stimulating factor (G-CSF), and granulocyte-macrophage colony–stimulating factor (GM-CSF) can be administered subcutaneously. The nurse should ensure proper administration of interleukin 2 and monitor for side effects, such as capillary leak syndrome, which can cause fluid retention and hypotension.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is reviewing factors that influence pharmacokinetics in the neonatal patient. Which factor puts the neonatal patient at risk with regard to drug therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Neonates have an immature renal system, which affects the excretion of drugs and their metabolites. This immaturity can lead to prolonged drug half-lives and an increased risk of toxicity. While hyperperistalsis, irregular temperature regulation, and smaller circulatory capacity can influence drug therapy, the immature renal system is the most significant factor. Nurses must consider this when administering medications to neonates and adjust dosages accordingly to ensure safety and efficacy.
Question 3 of 5
A severely immunocompromised female patient requires a blood transfusion. To prevent GVHD, the physician will order:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Irradiation of donor blood is a standard practice to prevent graft-versus-host disease (GVHD) in immunocompromised patients. Irradiation inactivates the donor's lymphocytes, preventing them from attacking the recipient's tissues. Diphenhydramine and acetaminophen are used to manage allergic reactions or fever but do not prevent GVHD. Administering the transfusion slowly does not address the risk of GVHD. Therefore, irradiation is the correct preventive measure.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following antiepileptic drugs is associated with visual field defects?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Antiepileptics vary in side effects. Valproate causes tremor or hepatotoxicity, not visual defects. Carbamazepine risks rash or hyponatremia, not eyes. Lamotrigine is linked to rash, tiagabine to dizziness, without visual impact. Vigabatrin, a GABA-transaminase inhibitor, causes irreversible concentric visual field defects in ~30-40% of users due to retinal toxicity, a unique and serious adverse effect. This necessitates ophthalmologic monitoring, distinguishing it in epilepsy treatment choices.
Question 5 of 5
Most β blockers:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Most beta-blockers (e.g., propranolol, metoprolol) have half-lives of 3-10 hours, a true statement reflecting their typical duration, useful for dosing frequency. They have a large, not small, volume of distribution due to tissue penetration, so that's false. Many have good oral bioavailability, not poor, especially non-selective ones. Lipid solubility varies (e.g., propranolol is high, atenolol low), but many cross the BBB, causing CNS effects, though not universally true. They're often metabolized, not excreted unchanged. The half-life range is a key pharmacokinetic feature, guiding their use in hypertension or angina.