Which drug is used to treat acute gout attacks?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Colchicine. Colchicine is used to treat acute gout attacks by reducing inflammation and pain caused by urate crystal deposits in joints. It works by inhibiting inflammatory processes. Allopurinol is used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels. Ibuprofen and Aspirin are nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs that can help with pain but do not target the underlying cause of gout.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer A: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker, specifically blocking calcium channels in the heart and blood vessels. By inhibiting calcium entry into cells, it reduces muscle contraction and dilates blood vessels, leading to decreased blood pressure. This mechanism is effective in treating hypertension. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: Inhibiting norepinephrine reuptake is related to antidepressants, not amlodipine. C: Stimulating beta-1 adrenergic receptors would increase heart rate and contractility, opposite of amlodipine's effects. D: Inhibiting sodium reabsorption in the kidneys is a mechanism of diuretics, not calcium channel blockers like amlodipine.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methimazole. Methimazole is commonly prescribed for hyperthyroidism as it inhibits the production of thyroid hormones. It is a first-line treatment for this condition. Levothyroxine (A) is used to treat hypothyroidism, not hyperthyroidism. Propranolol (C) is used to manage symptoms of hyperthyroidism like rapid heart rate but does not treat the underlying cause. Amiodarone (D) can actually induce hyperthyroidism as a side effect.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. Tramadol is a centrally acting opioid analgesic that primarily works by inhibiting the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine. This mechanism helps to increase the levels of these neurotransmitters in the brain, leading to pain relief. Choice B is incorrect because tramadol is not a direct opioid agonist. Choice C is incorrect as tramadol does not inhibit acetylcholine. Choice D is incorrect as tramadol does not primarily inhibit prostaglandin synthesis.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Reducing inflammation in the airways. Fluticasone is a corticosteroid that works by reducing inflammation in the airways, which is a key feature of asthma pathophysiology. It inhibits the inflammatory response, decreases mucus production, and improves lung function. Choice A is incorrect because blocking leukotriene receptors is the mechanism of action of leukotriene receptor antagonists, not fluticasone. Choice B is incorrect as stimulating beta-2 receptors is the mechanism of action of beta-2 agonists like albuterol, not fluticasone. Choice D is incorrect because inhibiting the release of histamine from mast cells is the mechanism of antihistamines, not corticosteroids like fluticasone.