ATI RN
Pharmacology Final ATI Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which drug is used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. It works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, displacing the opioids and temporarily reversing their effects. Naloxone is commonly administered in emergency situations to quickly restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals who have overdosed on opioids. Aspirin (choice A) and Advil (choice B) are non-opioid pain relievers and do not reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. Ondansetron (choice D) is an anti-nausea medication and does not counteract the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
Question 2 of 9
Which drug is used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone is a medication used to reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. It works by binding to the opioid receptors in the brain, displacing the opioids and temporarily reversing their effects. Naloxone is commonly administered in emergency situations to quickly restore normal breathing and consciousness in individuals who have overdosed on opioids. Aspirin (choice A) and Advil (choice B) are non-opioid pain relievers and do not reverse the effects of an opioid overdose. Ondansetron (choice D) is an anti-nausea medication and does not counteract the respiratory depression caused by opioid overdose.
Question 3 of 9
Which of the following is not a phenylpropionic derivatives:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Mefenamic acid is not a phenylpropionic derivative. It is classified as a fenamate, structurally related to fenamic acid. The other options (A. ibuprofen, B. fenoprofen, C. naproxen) are all examples of phenylpropionic derivatives, commonly referred to as propionic acids. These drugs have similar chemical structures and mechanisms of action, making them a distinct group within the nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) class.
Question 4 of 9
Drugs with no significant effect on anticoagulant therapy include:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Amiodarone inhibits warfarin metabolism, increasing INR, so it affects anticoagulation. Disulfiram also potentiates warfarin via CYP inhibition, enhancing effect. Fluconazole similarly boosts warfarin levels, a significant interaction. Benzodiazepines have no major effect on anticoagulant therapy, a true statement, as they're metabolized differently. Metronidazole, like fluconazole, increases warfarin effect. Benzodiazepines' lack of interaction makes them safer in this context, a key consideration in polypharmacy.
Question 5 of 9
The patient has been depressed, and the physician plans to begin treatment with an antidepressant medication. In performing the initial assessment, what is the most important question for the nurse to ask?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Before starting antidepressants, assessing for suicidal ideation is critical because depression carries a high suicide risk, and some antidepressants, especially SSRIs, may initially increase this risk in vulnerable patients. This safety concern trumps other questions in urgency, as it directly impacts immediate care planning—potentially requiring closer monitoring or hospitalization. Alcohol use affects treatment efficacy but isn't the primary safety issue. Allergies are important for drug selection but secondary to life-threatening risks. Duration of depression informs chronicity, not acute danger. The nurse must prioritize identifying suicidal thoughts to ensure patient safety, aligning with psychiatric protocols and the therapeutic delay of antidepressants (2-6 weeks), making choice D the most essential question in this context.
Question 6 of 9
A 74-year-old professional golfer has chest pain that occurs toward the end of his golfing games. He says the pain usually goes away after one or two sublingual nitroglycerin tablets and rest. What type of angina is he experiencing?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The 74-year-old professional golfer is likely experiencing Prinzmetal™s angina. This type of angina, also known as variant angina, typically occurs at rest and is due to coronary artery spasm, rather than the typical obstruction of blood flow seen in classic angina. The chest pain in Prinzmetal™s angina is often relieved by medications that dilate the blood vessels, such as nitroglycerin, as described by the patient. This distinguishes it from classic angina, which is typically triggered by exertion or emotional stress. Unstable angina, on the other hand, is characterized by chest pain that occurs unpredictably, even at rest and may signal an impending heart attack.
Question 7 of 9
In severe renal failure:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In severe renal failure, the clearance of digoxin is reduced, requiring smaller maintenance doses to avoid toxicity.
Question 8 of 9
Which explanation best indicates why barbiturates are rarely used to treat anxiety and insomnia?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Barbiturates (e.g., phenobarbital) cause serious adverse effects-respiratory depression, dependence-limiting use versus safer options like benzos, per pharmacology. Cost isn't higher. Allergies aren't notable. They're effective but risky. Side effects drive rarity, a safety shift.
Question 9 of 9
A habitual user of a schedule-controlled drug abruptly stops using it. Within 8 h, she becomes anxious, starts to sweat, and gets severe abdominal pain with diarrhea. These symptoms intensify over the next 12 h, during which time she has a runny nose, is lacrimating, and has uncontrollable yawning and intensification of muscle cramping and jerking. Assuming that these are withdrawal symptoms in the patient due to her physical dependence, the drug most likely to be involved is
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Meperidine, a synthetic opioid, causes physical dependence with chronic use. Abrupt cessation triggers classic opioid withdrawal: anxiety, sweating, abdominal pain, diarrhea (8-12 hours onset), escalating to rhinorrhea, lacrimation, yawning, and muscle cramps—matching the timeline and symptoms described. Alprazolam (benzodiazepine) withdrawal peaks later (days), with seizures and anxiety but less GI distress. Amphetamine withdrawal causes fatigue and depression, not this autonomic profile. Ethanol withdrawal includes tremors and seizures, typically 12-48 hours, differing from this rapid onset. Secobarbital (barbiturate) withdrawal resembles benzodiazepines, with delayed seizures. Meperidine's mu receptor agonism explains the dependence and acute, opioid-specific withdrawal syndrome, aligning perfectly with the patient's presentation.