Which drug is effective in managing mild to moderate hypotension?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phenylephrine. It is a vasoconstrictor that increases blood pressure by constricting blood vessels. This makes it effective in managing mild to moderate hypotension by raising blood pressure. Amiodarone (B) is an antiarrhythmic drug, not used for hypotension. Ibutilide (C) is used for atrial fibrillation/flutter, not hypotension. Milrinone (D) is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor used for heart failure, not hypotension. Therefore, A is the correct choice for managing hypotension.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increases heart rate. Non-cardio-selective beta blockers block beta-1 and beta-2 receptors, leading to unopposed alpha receptor stimulation, causing increased heart rate. Choice A is incorrect as beta blockers typically lower blood pressure. Choice C is incorrect as beta blockers can cause bradycardia, not sinus bradycardia specifically. Choice D is incorrect because non-cardio-selective beta blockers can exacerbate asthma due to beta-2 receptor blockade.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Atrial flutter. Calcium channel blockers are used to treat atrial arrhythmias by slowing down the conduction of electrical signals in the heart, specifically in the atria. This helps in controlling the heart rate and rhythm in conditions like atrial flutter. B: Ventricular tachycardia is incorrect because calcium channel blockers primarily affect the atria, not the ventricles where ventricular tachycardia originates. C: Frequent PVCs is incorrect as calcium channel blockers are not typically used to treat premature ventricular contractions (PVCs). D: Sinus bradycardia is incorrect because calcium channel blockers can further slow down the heart rate, potentially worsening sinus bradycardia.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Captopril. Captopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause neutropenia as a rare side effect by suppressing bone marrow function. Metoprolol (A) is a beta-blocker and does not typically cause neutropenia. Lisinopril (C) is also an ACE inhibitor, but it is less likely to cause neutropenia compared to captopril. Guanfacine (D) is an alpha-2 adrenergic agonist and is not associated with neutropenia. Therefore, based on the mechanism of action and side effect profile, captopril is the most likely medication to have caused neutropenia in the client.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitor for hemorrhage. This is the priority intervention for a client on low molecular weight heparin due to its anticoagulant effect, which increases the risk of bleeding. Monitoring for hemorrhage involves assessing for signs such as bruising, petechiae, hematomas, and abnormal bleeding from any site. This intervention is crucial to detect and address any bleeding complications promptly. Incorrect choices: A: Monitoring the heparin level is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it does not require routine monitoring. B: Monitoring the aPTT is not necessary for low molecular weight heparin as it has a more predictable anticoagulant effect than unfractionated heparin. D: Monitoring the blood sugar is not directly related to the use of low molecular weight heparin and is not a priority intervention in this case.