ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A 2023 Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which drug group calls for nursing assessment for development of abnormal movement disorders among individuals who take therapeutic dosages?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antipsychotics. Nursing assessment for abnormal movement disorders is crucial for individuals taking antipsychotics due to the risk of developing extrapyramidal symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. These movement disorders can significantly impact the individual's quality of life and require close monitoring by healthcare providers. Summary: A: SSRIs - SSRIs are not typically associated with abnormal movement disorders; they are more commonly linked to serotonin-related side effects like sexual dysfunction or gastrointestinal disturbances. C: Benzodiazepines - Benzodiazepines are not known to cause abnormal movement disorders at therapeutic dosages; they are more likely to cause sedation, dizziness, and cognitive impairment. D: Tricyclic antidepressants - While tricyclic antidepressants can cause side effects like dizziness and sedation, they are not primarily associated with abnormal movement disorders like antipsychotics.
Question 2 of 9
A nurse is assessing a survivor of intimate partner violence. During the interview, the nurse determines that the survivor's partner is using power and control over the client through coercion and threats. Which client statement would lead the nurse to suspect this?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the statement indicates that the partner is using coercion and threats to control the survivor by threatening to report her to child services, which demonstrates an abuse of power and control. This behavior is a clear indication of domestic violence dynamics, where the abuser exerts authority over the survivor through manipulation and intimidation. Choice A is incorrect because denying the abuse is not necessarily an indicator of power and control. Choice B, while concerning, does not specifically demonstrate coercion or threats. Choice D, while also indicating a power dynamic, does not involve explicit threats or coercion like choice C. Thus, choice C is the most indicative of power and control tactics commonly seen in intimate partner violence situations.
Question 3 of 9
Which drug group calls for nursing assessment for development of abnormal movement disorders among individuals who take therapeutic dosages?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Antipsychotics. Nursing assessment for abnormal movement disorders is crucial for individuals taking antipsychotics due to the risk of developing extrapyramidal symptoms such as dystonia, akathisia, parkinsonism, and tardive dyskinesia. These movement disorders can significantly impact the individual's quality of life and require close monitoring by healthcare providers. Summary: A: SSRIs - SSRIs are not typically associated with abnormal movement disorders; they are more commonly linked to serotonin-related side effects like sexual dysfunction or gastrointestinal disturbances. C: Benzodiazepines - Benzodiazepines are not known to cause abnormal movement disorders at therapeutic dosages; they are more likely to cause sedation, dizziness, and cognitive impairment. D: Tricyclic antidepressants - While tricyclic antidepressants can cause side effects like dizziness and sedation, they are not primarily associated with abnormal movement disorders like antipsychotics.
Question 4 of 9
A client with body dysmorphic disorder is admitted to the inpatient unit. Based on the nurse's understanding about this disorder, the nurse would assess this client closely for which of the following?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Suicidal ideation. Clients with body dysmorphic disorder often experience severe distress and preoccupation with perceived flaws in their appearance, leading to significant emotional and psychological distress. This can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and self-harm. Assessing for suicidal ideation is crucial to ensure the client's safety and provide appropriate interventions. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Escalating violence - While individuals with body dysmorphic disorder may experience distress and frustration, there is no direct correlation between the disorder and escalating violence. C: Anorexia - Body dysmorphic disorder and anorexia are separate disorders, although they may co-occur. Anorexia focuses on distorted body image related to weight and shape, while body dysmorphic disorder focuses on specific perceived flaws in appearance. D: Psychosis - Body dysmorphic disorder is not typically associated with psychosis, which involves a loss of touch with reality. Clients with body
Question 5 of 9
Which statement reflects the ethical principle of utilitarianism?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The end justifies the means." This statement aligns with the ethical principle of utilitarianism, which focuses on achieving the greatest good for the greatest number of people. In utilitarianism, the consequences of an action determine its morality, and if the end result benefits the majority, then the means used to achieve it are justified. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: B: "If you mean well, you will be justified." - This statement reflects more of an intention-based ethical principle rather than utilitarianism that prioritizes outcomes over intentions. C: "Do unto others as you would have them do unto you." - This reflects the Golden Rule principle of reciprocity, not utilitarianism which emphasizes maximizing overall happiness. D: "What is right is what is best for me." - This choice is more aligned with ethical egoism, which prioritizes self-interest rather than the greater good for the majority.
Question 6 of 9
What is a risk of alcohol intake in an older adult that is not as high of a risk in a younger adult?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: risk for osteoporosis. Older adults are at a higher risk for osteoporosis due to alcohol consumption as it can further weaken bones, leading to fractures. This risk is not as prevalent in younger adults whose bones are typically stronger. Choice B: risk of car accidents is not age-dependent; alcohol impairs driving skills regardless of age. Choice C: risk for hallucinations can occur in both older and younger adults with alcohol intake, depending on individual susceptibility. Choice D: risk for vomiting is a common side effect of excessive alcohol consumption, which can affect individuals of all ages.
Question 7 of 9
When describing the concept of allostatic load to a group of students, which of the following would the instructor identify as abnormalities of which of the following as indicative of the overall changes?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Laboratory test results. Allostatic load refers to the cumulative wear and tear on the body as a result of chronic stress. Laboratory test results, such as cortisol levels, inflammation markers, and lipid profiles, provide direct indicators of physiological changes associated with stress. These results offer insights into how the body is responding to stress at a biochemical level. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: A: Nuclear imaging studies - While nuclear imaging studies can provide valuable information about organ function, they are not typically used to directly measure the impact of stress on the body. C: Bone radiographs - Bone radiographs are used to assess bone structure and density, not typically associated with measuring allostatic load or stress-related changes. D: Cardiac studies - Cardiac studies focus on heart function and cardiovascular health, which can be influenced by stress but may not directly reflect the overall changes associated with allostatic load as comprehensively as laboratory test results.
Question 8 of 9
Connor is a 28-year-old student, referred by his university for a psychiatric evaluation. He reports that he has no friends at the university and people call him a loner. Recently, Connor has been giving lectures to pigeons at the university fountains. Connor is diagnosed as schizotypal, which differs from schizophrenia in that persons diagnosed as schizotypal:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Can be made aware of their delusions. Schizotypal personality disorder is characterized by odd behaviors and beliefs, but individuals with this disorder can maintain some awareness of their unusual thoughts. This is in contrast to schizophrenia, where individuals may have difficulty recognizing their delusions as false. Therefore, the ability to be made aware of their delusions sets schizotypal individuals apart from those with schizophrenia. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect: B: Are far more delusional than schizophrenics - This is incorrect as the severity of delusions can vary among individuals with different mental health disorders. C: Have a greater need for socialization - This is incorrect as schizotypal individuals often struggle with social interactions and may prefer solitude. D: Do not usually respond to antipsychotic medications - This is incorrect as individuals with schizotypal personality disorder may benefit from antipsychotic medications for symptom management.
Question 9 of 9
A patient was hospitalized for 24 hours after a reaction to a psychotropic medication. While planning discharge, the case manager learned that the patient received a notice of eviction immediately prior to admission. Select the case manager's most appropriate action.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the case manager is to arrange a temporary place for the patient to stay until new housing can be arranged. This is the most appropriate response because it addresses the immediate need of the patient for housing stability. By providing temporary accommodation, it ensures the patient's safety and well-being while allowing time to find a more permanent housing solution. Postponing discharge (Choice A) could lead to prolonged hospitalization, increasing healthcare costs unnecessarily. Contacting the landlord (Choice B) may not directly address the patient's housing needs and could potentially escalate the situation. Determining the genuineness of the adverse medication reaction based on the patient's housing situation (Choice D) is not relevant to addressing the patient's immediate housing needs and may undermine the patient's care. In summary, Choice C is the best course of action as it prioritizes the patient's immediate safety and well-being while working towards a more permanent housing solution.