Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Understands discharge instructions. This is crucial for patient safety and recovery post-surgery. Understanding discharge instructions ensures patients know how to care for themselves at home, manage medications, recognize warning signs, and follow-up instructions. Choice A is incorrect as patients should not drive after surgery due to potential impairment. Choice B is incorrect as IV narcotics administration timing is not a discharge criterion. Choice C is irrelevant to the patient's readiness for discharge. Understanding discharge instructions is the key factor in ensuring the patient's well-being and recovery after ambulatory surgery.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. In Type I hypersensitivity, anaphylactic reactions involve immediate IgE-mediated responses to allergens, leading to histamine release and potentially life-threatening symptoms. This type of reaction is characterized by rapid onset and systemic involvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition leading to inflammation (B), Type II reactions involve cytotoxic antibodies targeting cells (C), and Type IV reactions involve delayed cell-mediated responses (D).

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tactile agnosia. When assessing a client with a parietal lobe brain tumor, the nurse would expect to assess for tactile agnosia as the parietal lobe is responsible for processing sensory information, including touch and spatial awareness. Tactile agnosia is the inability to recognize objects by touch. This impairment is commonly associated with parietal lobe lesions. Short-term memory impairment (A) is more commonly associated with temporal lobe lesions. Seizures (B) are more commonly associated with frontal lobe lesions. Contralateral homonymous hemianopia (D) is associated with occipital lobe lesions. In summary, the parietal lobe tumor would likely manifest as tactile agnosia due to its role in sensory processing, making it the most relevant assessment finding in this scenario.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To stimulate bone growth. Estrogen and progesterone are hormones that play a crucial role in maintaining bone density and promoting bone growth. In postmenopausal women or individuals with conditions like aplastic anemia, bone health can be compromised. Estrogen helps in preventing bone loss and maintaining bone strength, while progesterone also contributes to bone formation. Therefore, in this scenario, these medications are likely prescribed to help improve bone health in the woman with aplastic anemia. Incorrect choices: B: Estrogen and progesterone do not directly enhance sodium and potassium levels. C: Estrogen and progesterone do not regulate fluid balance absorption directly. D: Estrogen and progesterone do not specifically promote utilization and storage of fluids.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Phagocytosis. Macrophages and neutrophils are both types of phagocytes responsible for engulfing and digesting pathogens such as bacteria. This process helps in clearing infections and maintaining immune homeostasis. Summary: - Choice B (Complement fixation) is incorrect as it refers to a process where complement proteins bind to pathogens to enhance their removal by phagocytes. - Choice C (Antibody production) is incorrect as macrophages and neutrophils do not produce antibodies. They mainly rely on phagocytosis for pathogen clearance. - Choice D (Suppression of autoimmunity) is incorrect as these cells are involved in innate immunity and do not play a direct role in regulating autoimmunity.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: A Rationale: 1. Asking if the patient feels the need to go to the bathroom helps assess urgency. 2. Urinary retention may lead to the inability to sense the urge to void. 3. This question directly addresses the issue of voiding, crucial in diagnosing urinary retention. Summary: B: Mobility is not directly related to urinary retention. C: Medication timing is important but not directly related to urinary retention. D: Safety rail inquiry is more related to fall prevention, not urinary retention.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because assessment data should be collected continuously to ensure timely detection of any changes in the client's condition. This allows for prompt interventions and prevents complications. Choice B is incorrect as assessment should be ongoing and not limited to specific times. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of assessment should be based on client needs, not a fixed schedule. Choice D is incorrect as assessments should not be limited to certain times but should be ongoing to provide comprehensive care.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7.35-7.45. Plasma pH typically falls within this range for normal clients. A pH of 7.35-7.45 indicates a slightly alkaline to neutral environment, which is essential for various physiological processes to function optimally. Choices B, C, and D have pH values outside the normal range, indicating either acidic (B and C) or highly alkaline (D) conditions, which would be abnormal and potentially harmful to the body's functioning. Therefore, the normal range for plasma pH is crucial to maintain homeostasis and support overall health.