Which drug class is used to reduce symptoms of muscle weakness from myasthenia gravis?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Type I hypersensitivity reaction. In Type I hypersensitivity, anaphylactic reactions involve immediate IgE-mediated responses to allergens, leading to histamine release and potentially life-threatening symptoms. This type of reaction is characterized by rapid onset and systemic involvement. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Type III reactions involve immune complex deposition leading to inflammation (B), Type II reactions involve cytotoxic antibodies targeting cells (C), and Type IV reactions involve delayed cell-mediated responses (D).

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Anticholinesterase drugs. These drugs increase acetylcholine levels at neuromuscular junctions, helping improve muscle strength in myasthenia gravis. Adrenergic drugs (B) and beta-blocker drugs (D) are not typically used to treat muscle weakness in myasthenia gravis. Anticholinergic drugs (C) can worsen symptoms by blocking acetylcholine receptors, making them an inappropriate choice for this condition.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Compatible blood and tissue types. This is crucial to minimize the risk of rejection and ensure a successful transplant. Matching blood and tissue types help prevent the recipient's immune system from attacking the new organ. Blood relationship (A) is not as important as compatibility. Sex and size (C) are important considerations for certain transplants but not the most crucial factor. Need (D) is relevant but does not outweigh the importance of compatibility to ensure a successful transplant.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Regular aerobic exercise helps lower blood pressure by improving heart health and circulation. Step 2: Exercise reduces stress and promotes weight loss, factors that contribute to hypertension control. Step 3: Alcohol consumption can raise blood pressure and should be limited or avoided. Step 4: Smoking and using low-tar cigarettes can still raise blood pressure and have other negative health effects. Step 5: Daily multivitamin supplements do not directly impact blood pressure control.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "There is an increase in the intraocular pressure." Glaucoma is a group of eye conditions that damage the optic nerve due to increased pressure within the eye. High intraocular pressure is a key factor in the development of glaucoma. Choice A is incorrect because glaucoma is not associated with an increase in vitreous humor. Choice C is incorrect as glaucoma is not related to a decrease in aqueous humor. Choice D is incorrect because glaucoma is characterized by an increase, not a decrease, in intraocular pressure. Therefore, the most accurate description to explain glaucoma to a patient is the one that mentions the increase in intraocular pressure.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because firm skin turgor indicates adequate hydration, a key goal of fluid resuscitation in diarrhea management. Firm skin turgor reflects the body's fluid balance and hydration status. When fluid resuscitation is successful, the patient's skin turgor improves due to replenished fluid levels. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly assess hydration status or the effectiveness of fluid resuscitation. Passing formed stools, decrease in stool frequency, and absence of perianal burning may be positive outcomes in diarrhea management, but they do not specifically indicate successful fluid resuscitation.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Teaches proper handwashing technique. This is the most appropriate intervention because proper handwashing can help prevent the spread of infection, including urinary infections. Teaching the patient about handwashing empowers them to take control of their own hygiene, reducing the risk of infection. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Properly cleans the patient's toilet - While important for maintaining cleanliness, this does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection. C: Transports urine specimen to the lab - This is not a direct care intervention for preventing urinary infections. D: Informs the oncoming nurse during hand-off - Hand-off communication is important for continuity of care but does not directly address the patient's risk for a urinary infection.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 7.35-7.45. Plasma pH typically falls within this range for normal clients. A pH of 7.35-7.45 indicates a slightly alkaline to neutral environment, which is essential for various physiological processes to function optimally. Choices B, C, and D have pH values outside the normal range, indicating either acidic (B and C) or highly alkaline (D) conditions, which would be abnormal and potentially harmful to the body's functioning. Therefore, the normal range for plasma pH is crucial to maintain homeostasis and support overall health.