ATI RN
Age Specific Patient Care Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which documentation indicates that the treatment plan for a patient with acute mania was effective?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the behaviors described indicate that the patient is able to converse without interrupting, their clothing matches, and they participate in activities. These behaviors suggest improved impulse control, stable mood, and engagement in daily activities, indicating effectiveness of the treatment plan. Choice B describes symptoms of mania such as irritability and distractibility, which would indicate ongoing symptoms rather than improvement. Choice C indicates a short attention span and excessive journaling, which are not indicative of effective treatment. Choice D describes behaviors suggestive of hypersexuality and pressured speech, which are not signs of improvement in acute mania.
Question 2 of 5
A client who received chlorpromazine (Thorazine) for 15 years to treat schizophrenia developed tardive dyskinesia as evidenced by tongue thrusting and chewing motions. The physician discontinued the chlorpromazine and prescribed Seroquel (quetiapine). As a result of this change, the nurse should carefully monitor for:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Improvement in tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, like chlorpromazine. Quetiapine (Seroquel) is an atypical antipsychotic with a lower risk of causing tardive dyskinesia. By discontinuing chlorpromazine and switching to quetiapine, there is a higher likelihood of improvement or resolution of tardive dyskinesia symptoms. Options A and B are incorrect as they are related to other movement disorders caused by antipsychotics. Option D is incorrect as anticholinergic symptoms are not directly related to tardive dyskinesia improvement with the medication switch.
Question 3 of 5
A client with schizophrenia is medication compliant and has well-controlled symptoms. He has, however, never been successful in holding a job because of poor social skills and lack of understanding of basic job skills. The nurse case manager should consider referring the client:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: For psychosocial rehabilitation. This option is the most appropriate because the client is struggling with social skills and job-related skills. Psychosocial rehabilitation programs focus on improving social and vocational skills, which are essential for the client to succeed in holding a job. These programs also provide support and training tailored to the individual's needs. Referring the client to a day hospital program (A) may not address his specific vocational needs. Cognitive therapy (C) primarily focuses on addressing cognitive distortions and may not directly target social and vocational skills. Assertiveness training (D) may be helpful but may not fully address the client's broader vocational challenges.
Question 4 of 5
A patient with schizophrenia is admitted to the psychiatric unit in an acutely disturbed, violent state. He is given several doses of haloperidol (Haldol) and becomes calm and approachable. During rounds the nurse notices the patient has his head rotated to one side in a stiffly fixed position. His lower jaw is thrust forward and he appears severely anxious. The patient has ______, and the nurse should ______.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: a dystonic reaction"¦administer PRN IM benztropine (Cogentin). 1. Step: Identify the symptoms - The patient has head rotation, stiff fixed position, and lower jaw thrust forward, indicating dystonia. 2. Step: Understand dystonic reactions - Dystonia is an extrapyramidal side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. 3. Step: Choose appropriate treatment - Benztropine is an anticholinergic medication used to treat acute dystonic reactions. 4. Step: Administer the medication - IM benztropine is the correct route for acute treatment of dystonia. Summary: - Choice B (tardive dyskinesia) is incorrect because the symptoms described are acute and not consistent with the gradual onset of tardive dyskinesia. - Choice C (waxy flexibility) is incorrect because it is a symptom of catatonia, not a side effect of ant
Question 5 of 5
At 11:00 AM, a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits concrete thinking asks the nurse for PRN acetaminophen (Tylenol). However, he last had it at 8:00 AM, and it is ordered only every 4 hours. Which nursing response would be most therapeutic?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because it provides a clear, concrete instruction that the patient can easily understand. By stating "come back when both hands of the clock point straight up," the nurse offers a specific and visual cue for the patient to know when it's time for the medication. This approach aligns with the patient's concrete thinking and helps him grasp the concept of time more effectively. Choice A is incorrect because stating "in 1 hour" may be too abstract for a patient with concrete thinking. Choice B is also incorrect as it provides a general time frame without a visual reference, which may confuse the patient. Choice D is incorrect as suggesting a nap does not address the patient's request for medication and does not provide a clear time frame.