ATI RN
Pediatric Nursing Exam Preparation Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which disease of the following can cause distributive shock?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing, understanding the mechanisms of shock is crucial for providing effective care to children in critical conditions. In this question, the correct answer is C) Early septic shock, which can cause distributive shock in pediatric patients. Septic shock is a type of distributive shock where there is a systemic response to infection leading to vasodilation, increased vascular permeability, and impaired tissue perfusion. In pediatric patients, septic shock can rapidly progress and is a leading cause of mortality. Recognizing early signs and symptoms is essential for prompt intervention and improving outcomes. Option A) Cardiac tamponade is a form of obstructive shock caused by compression of the heart due to fluid accumulation in the pericardial sac. This condition impairs cardiac filling and function, leading to decreased cardiac output. Option B) Dehydration can cause hypovolemic shock, which results from a significant loss of intravascular fluid volume. This leads to decreased preload and inadequate tissue perfusion. Option D) Critical aortic stenosis can lead to cardiogenic shock, where the heart is unable to pump effectively due to structural abnormalities. This results in poor cardiac output and tissue hypoperfusion. Educationally, understanding the different types of shock and their etiologies is vital for pediatric nurses to accurately assess, intervene, and advocate for their patients. By grasping the distinctions between distributive, hypovolemic, obstructive, and cardiogenic shock, nurses can tailor their care to meet the specific needs of pediatric patients in shock states.
Question 2 of 5
One of the following is a microcytic hypochromic anemia:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: In pediatric nursing, understanding different types of anemia is crucial for providing effective care to children. In this case, the correct answer is B) Iron deficiency anemia, which is a microcytic hypochromic anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is characterized by small (microcytic) and pale (hypochromic) red blood cells due to insufficient iron for hemoglobin synthesis. It is a common type of anemia in children, often caused by inadequate dietary intake, blood loss, or poor absorption. A) Aplastic anemia is a normocytic normochromic anemia caused by bone marrow failure, leading to a decrease in all blood cell types. C) Leukemia is a type of cancer affecting white blood cells and does not present as microcytic hypochromic anemia. D) Sickle cell anemia is a hemolytic anemia characterized by sickle-shaped red blood cells due to a genetic mutation affecting hemoglobin. Educationally, this question reinforces the importance of recognizing different types of anemia in pediatric patients and understanding their etiology, clinical manifestations, and treatment approaches. It highlights the significance of thorough assessment and diagnostic skills in providing quality care to children with hematologic disorders.
Question 3 of 5
One of the following statements is false about acute leukemia:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In the context of pediatric nursing exam preparation, understanding acute leukemia is crucial. The correct answer is A) Radiation therapy has a role in leukemia therapy. This statement is false because radiation therapy is generally not a primary treatment for leukemia in children due to its harmful effects on developing tissues and the risk of secondary cancers. Option B) Anemia is poor prognostic value is incorrect because anemia is actually a common finding in leukemia but alone does not determine the prognosis. Other factors like type of leukemia, genetic abnormalities, and response to treatment play a more significant role in prognosis. Option C) Blast cell more than 25% in bone marrow is diagnostic is incorrect as the diagnosis of acute leukemia is based on the presence of at least 20% blasts in the bone marrow or peripheral blood, not specifically 25%. Option D) Leukocytic count more than 100,000 is called hyperleukocytosis is incorrect as hyperleukocytosis is defined as a leukocyte count greater than 50,000, not 100,000. Educationally, it is important for pediatric nurses to have a solid understanding of leukemia, including its diagnostic criteria, treatment modalities, and prognostic factors to provide optimal care for pediatric patients with this condition. Understanding the nuances of leukemia management helps nurses advocate for appropriate treatment plans and provide comprehensive support to patients and their families.
Question 4 of 5
One of the following is the most appropriate combination of the 'famous triad' in acute leukemia:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C) Fever - Pallor - Purpura, which represents the famous triad seen in acute leukemia. This combination is indicative of the classic symptoms associated with acute leukemia in pediatric patients. Fever is a common presenting symptom in leukemia due to the body's response to the abnormal production of leukemic cells. Pallor results from anemia, which is a common hematological manifestation of leukemia. Purpura, which refers to small hemorrhages under the skin, mucous membranes, or internal organs, can occur due to the decreased platelet count in leukemia. Option A) Fever - Pallor - Abdominal enlargement is incorrect because abdominal enlargement is more commonly associated with conditions like hepatomegaly or splenomegaly, which can occur in leukemia but are not part of the classic triad. Option B) Pallor - Purpura - Bone aches is incorrect as bone aches are a common symptom in leukemia but not part of the classic triad. Option D) Purpura - Fever - Lymphadenopathy is incorrect because lymphadenopathy (enlarged lymph nodes) is not typically part of the classic triad seen in acute leukemia. Understanding these classic triads and symptom clusters in pediatric nursing is crucial for early identification and prompt management of conditions like acute leukemia, emphasizing the importance of comprehensive pediatric nursing exam preparation.
Question 5 of 5
The parents of a 3-month-old infant report that their infant sleeps supine (face up) but is often prone (face down) while awake. The nurse's response should be based on knowledge that this is:
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, option D is the correct answer. The nurse should respond that the infant being prone while awake is acceptable to encourage head control and turning over. This response is based on the understanding that supervised tummy time is crucial for strengthening neck and upper body muscles, which are essential for developing head control and achieving the milestone of rolling over. Tummy time also helps prevent positional plagiocephaly (flat head syndrome). Option A is incorrect because placing infants on their back to sleep is the recommended position to reduce the risk of Sudden Infant Death Syndrome (SIDS). Option B is incorrect as tummy time actually supports the attainment of developmental milestones. Option C is also incorrect as fine motor development is more closely associated with activities that engage the hands and fingers rather than the position of the infant during sleep or awake times. In an educational context, it is important for nurses and caregivers to understand the significance of tummy time for infants' physical development. By explaining the benefits of tummy time, nurses can empower parents to incorporate this activity into their infant's daily routine to support healthy growth and development.