ATI RN
ADPIE Nursing Process Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which diagnosis will the nurse document in a patient’s care plan that is NANDA-I approved?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Acute pain. NANDA-I (North American Nursing Diagnosis Association International) approves standardized nursing diagnoses to guide nursing care. Acute pain is a NANDA-I approved diagnosis as it helps identify and address a patient's pain experience. It is specific, measurable, and relevant for care planning. Sore throat (A) is a symptom, not a diagnosis. Sleep apnea (C) and heart failure (D) are medical conditions, not nursing diagnoses. The focus of nursing care plans is on identifying patient responses to health conditions, which is why acute pain is the most appropriate choice.
Question 2 of 9
A patient’s plan of care includes the goal of increasing mobility this shift. As the patient is ambulating to the bathroom at the beginning of the shift, the patient suffers a fall. Which initial action will the nurse take next to revise the plan of care?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct initial action to take after the patient falls is to assess the patient (Choice D). This is important to determine the extent of any injuries sustained, assess the patient's current condition, and identify any factors that may have contributed to the fall. By conducting a thorough assessment, the nurse can gather crucial information to inform the revision of the care plan. Consulting physical therapy (Choice A) may be necessary later on but is not the immediate priority. Establishing a new plan of care (Choice B) and setting new priorities (Choice C) should be based on the assessment findings, making Choice D the most appropriate initial action.
Question 3 of 9
While monitoring a client for the development of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), the nurse should take note of what assessment parameters?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Platelet count, prothrombin time, and partial thromboplastin time. These parameters are essential in monitoring DIC because platelet count reflects the risk of bleeding, while prolonged prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time indicate impaired clotting function, which is characteristic of DIC. Explanation for why other choices are incorrect: - Choice B: Blood glucose levels and WBC count are not specific indicators for DIC monitoring. - Choice C: Thrombin time, calcium levels, and potassium levels do not directly assess clotting abnormalities associated with DIC. - Choice D: While fibrinogen level is important in DIC, WBC count alone is not a specific indicator for monitoring DIC.
Question 4 of 9
After reviewing the database, the nurse discovers that the patient’s vital signs have not been recorded by the nursing assistive personnel (NAP). Which clinical decision should the nurse make? Administer scheduled medications assuming that the NAP would have reported
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (C): 1. Safety first: Patient safety is the top priority in healthcare. Vital signs provide crucial information about the patient's condition. 2. Accountability: The nurse is responsible for ensuring accurate vital sign documentation. Asking the NAP to record vital signs before medication administration ensures accountability. 3. Communication: Clear communication between healthcare team members is essential to provide quality care. Asking the NAP to record vital signs promotes effective communication. Summary of Incorrect Choices: A (abnormal vital signs): Administering medications without knowing the patient's vital signs, especially if abnormal, can be dangerous and potentially harmful. B (review upon return): Delaying vital sign assessment until later can lead to missed opportunities for timely intervention if the patient's condition changes. D (omit vital signs): Neglecting vital signs based on assumption risks overlooking potential issues that could impact patient care and outcomes.
Question 5 of 9
What is the best way to detect testicular cancer early?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monthly testicular self-examination. This is the best way to detect testicular cancer early because it allows individuals to become familiar with the normal size, shape, and texture of their testicles, making it easier to notice any changes or abnormalities. Self-examination is cost-effective, convenient, and can be done regularly to monitor for any signs of cancer. Annual physician examination (B) may not be frequent enough for early detection. Yearly digital rectal examination (C) is not relevant for detecting testicular cancer. Annual ultrasonography (D) is not recommended as a routine screening tool for testicular cancer.
Question 6 of 9
Which patient is most at risk for fluid volume overload?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, the 35-year-old with kidney failure. Patients with kidney failure are at high risk for fluid volume overload due to the kidneys' inability to properly regulate fluid balance. This can lead to accumulation of excess fluids in the body, causing edema, hypertension, and heart failure. In contrast, choices A, B, and D are not at as high risk for fluid volume overload as patients with kidney failure, as their conditions do not directly impact fluid regulation in the body.
Question 7 of 9
The nurse is taking vital signs of a pregnant woman during her first prenatal visit. The patient asks the nurse if she has to have an HIV test. Which of the following is the nurse’s best response?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale for Correct Answer (A): The nurse's best response is to inform the pregnant woman that all pregnant women must have an HIV test. This is because HIV testing is a standard part of prenatal care to prevent mother-to-child transmission. It is crucial to detect HIV early to provide appropriate treatment and prevent transmission to the baby. Summary of Incorrect Choices: B: This response could lead to misinformation and potentially harm the patient and her baby. HIV testing is recommended for all pregnant women regardless of risk factors. C: While governmental guidelines may vary, it is essential for all pregnant women to undergo HIV testing to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby. D: While it is important to provide counseling and involve the patient in decision-making, in the case of HIV testing during pregnancy, it is a standard procedure that should be offered to all pregnant women to safeguard their health and that of their baby.
Question 8 of 9
A clinical nurse specialist (CNS) is orienting a new graduate registered nurse to an oncology unit where blood product transfusions are frequently administered. In discussing ABO compatibility, the CNS presents several hypothetical scenarios. A well-informed new graduate would know the greatest likelihood of an acute hemolytic reaction would occur when giving:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A-positive blood to an A-negative client. This is because in ABO blood typing, individuals with blood type A have anti-B antibodies in their plasma. Therefore, if A-positive blood (which contains the A antigen) is given to an A-negative client (who has anti-A antibodies), there is a high risk of an acute hemolytic reaction due to the antibodies attacking the transfused blood cells. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not involve a mismatch of ABO blood types that would lead to a significant risk of acute hemolytic reaction. In choice B, O-positive blood can be safely transfused to an A-positive client as O blood is considered the universal donor. In choice C, O-negative blood can be safely given to an O-positive client as O-negative blood is compatible with all blood types. In choice D, B-positive blood can be safely administered to an AB-positive client as the AB blood type can receive both
Question 9 of 9
Nursing assessment for a patient with metabolic alkalosis includes evaluation of laboratory data for all of the following except:
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Hypoglycemia. In metabolic alkalosis, the blood pH is elevated due to an excess of bicarbonate. Hypoglycemia is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can be seen in other conditions like diabetes or fasting. Evaluating for hypocalcemia (A) is important as alkalosis can lead to decreased ionized calcium levels. Hypokalemia (B) is common in metabolic alkalosis due to potassium loss. Hypoxemia (D) is not directly related to metabolic alkalosis but can occur in severe cases due to respiratory compensation. Therefore, hypoglycemia is the least relevant in assessing metabolic alkalosis.