ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which condition places a client at risk for elevated ammonia levels?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Lupus. Lupus can affect the kidneys, leading to renal impairment. Renal impairment can decrease the body's ability to excrete ammonia, resulting in elevated levels. Renal failure (choice A) can also lead to elevated ammonia levels, but lupus specifically contributes to renal issues. Cirrhosis (choice B) primarily affects the liver, not kidneys. Psoriasis (choice C) is a skin condition and does not directly impact ammonia levels.
Question 2 of 5
What is the most appropriate action when a client with suspected meningitis presents with a positive Brudzinski sign?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, perform a lumbar puncture. A positive Brudzinski sign indicates meningeal irritation, a hallmark of meningitis. A lumbar puncture is the gold standard for diagnosing meningitis by analyzing cerebrospinal fluid. Placing the client on their back without proper diagnosis or treatment delays could lead to serious complications. Option B is incorrect as antibiotics should be given after confirming the diagnosis. Option C is partially correct but does not address the need for a definitive diagnostic test. Option A is incorrect as pain medication alone does not address the underlying cause of meningitis.
Question 3 of 5
Which intervention should the nurse implement for a client who is experiencing a seizure?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, administering antiepileptic medications. This is because during an active seizure, the priority is to stop the seizure activity. Antiepileptic medications are specifically designed to prevent or reduce the frequency and intensity of seizures. Placing the client on their side and protecting their head (choice A) is important for safety but does not address stopping the seizure. Loosening clothing and ensuring safety (choice B) is also important but does not directly address the seizure itself. Monitoring airway and giving oxygen (choice C) is crucial but does not actively stop the seizure. Therefore, administering antiepileptic medications is the most appropriate intervention to address the root cause of the seizure.
Question 4 of 5
Which medication should be administered first for a client with acute asthma exacerbation?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Step-by-step rationale for choosing Albuterol as the correct answer: 1. Albuterol is a rapid-acting bronchodilator that provides immediate relief by relaxing the airway muscles during asthma exacerbation. 2. It is the first-line medication recommended by guidelines for acute asthma attacks due to its quick onset of action. 3. Albuterol helps in opening the airways, improving airflow, and relieving symptoms like shortness of breath and wheezing. 4. Epinephrine is not the first choice for asthma exacerbation as it can have more systemic side effects. 5. Levalbuterol is a similar medication to Albuterol but may not be as widely available or cost-effective. 6. IV corticosteroids are important for long-term control but take longer to show effects, making them less suitable as the initial treatment for acute exacerbation.
Question 5 of 5
What is the best way to assess a client's nutritional status?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitoring serum albumin levels. This is because serum albumin is a protein synthesized by the liver that reflects long-term protein intake and overall nutritional status. Low levels indicate malnutrition or inflammation. Obtaining a dietary history (choice A) is important but may not always reflect the actual nutritional status. Monitoring weight (choice C) is helpful but may not provide a comprehensive view of the client's nutritional status. Providing a meal plan (choice D) is a proactive approach but does not directly assess the client's current nutritional status.