Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: cirrhosis. Cirrhosis leads to impaired liver function, causing the liver to be unable to effectively metabolize ammonia, leading to high ammonia levels in the blood. Renal failure (choice A) is associated with high creatinine levels, not ammonia. Psoriasis (choice B) is a skin condition unrelated to ammonia levels. Lupus (choice C) is an autoimmune disease affecting various organs, not directly linked to high ammonia levels. In summary, cirrhosis is the only condition among the options that directly impacts liver function and can lead to high ammonia levels in the blood.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: A high-fat meal. After gastric resection, high-fat meals are likely to cause rapid gastric emptying due to the delayed gastric emptying effect of fats. Fats take longer to digest compared to other nutrients, leading to slower emptying of the stomach contents. This can result in rapid emptying of the stomach post-resection. A: A high-protein meal does not necessarily cause rapid gastric emptying as proteins are digested at a moderate pace. B: A large meal regardless of nutrient content may lead to slower gastric emptying due to the increased volume. C: A high-carbohydrate meal can promote quicker gastric emptying, but it is not as likely to cause rapid emptying as high-fat meals post-gastric resection.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Provide oxygen therapy. For a client with shortness of breath and a history of heart failure, oxygen therapy is the most effective intervention as it helps improve oxygenation and relieve respiratory distress. Administering diuretics may help manage fluid retention but does not directly address the breathing difficulty. Encouraging deep breathing may be beneficial for some respiratory conditions but may not be sufficient for a client with heart failure and shortness of breath. Applying oxygen therapy is similar to providing oxygen therapy and can help improve oxygen levels, but providing oxygen therapy is more specific and effective in this case.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer nitroglycerin. Nitroglycerin is the priority action for a client with a suspected myocardial infarction as it helps dilate coronary arteries, improving blood flow to the heart muscle. This helps reduce chest pain and minimize myocardial damage. Administering fluids (B) may be necessary but not the priority. Placing the client in a sitting position (C) could worsen symptoms. Administering aspirin (D) is important but not as immediate as nitroglycerin for acute pain relief.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: perimenopause. Perimenopause is the transitional phase leading to menopause, characterized by irregular menstrual cycles. Climacteric refers to the period of reproductive senescence, not just irregular menses. Menopause is the cessation of menstruation for 12 consecutive months. Postmenopause is the period after menopause, not characterized by irregular menses. Assessing for symptoms of perimenopause in a woman with irregular menses over the past six months is important to understand the hormonal changes and potential menopausal symptoms she may be experiencing.