Which condition is the least likely cause of amenorrhea in a 17yearold client?

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Maternal Health Issues in the US Questions

Question 1 of 5

Which condition is the least likely cause of amenorrhea in a 17yearold client?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A moderately obese adolescent (20% to 30% above ideal weight) may have early onset menstruation. Girls who regularly exercise before menarche can have delayed onset of menstruation to age 18 years. Anatomic abnormalities and Type 1 diabetes mellitus are also possible causes but obesity is least likely.

Question 2 of 5

A perimenopausal client has arrived for her annual gynecologic examination. Which preexisting condition would be extremely important for the nurse to identify during a discussion regarding the risks and benefits of hormone therapy?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A) Breast cancer. When discussing hormone therapy with a perimenopausal client, it is crucial to identify preexisting conditions that may impact the risks and benefits of treatment. Breast cancer is a significant concern because hormone therapy, particularly estrogen-progestin therapy, has been associated with an increased risk of breast cancer. Therefore, in a client with a history of breast cancer, hormone therapy may not be recommended due to the potential for cancer recurrence or growth. Option B) Vaginal and urinary tract atrophy is a common symptom of menopause that can be effectively treated with hormone therapy. While it is important to address this issue in perimenopausal clients, it is not as critical to identify as a history of breast cancer. Option C) Osteoporosis is another condition that can benefit from hormone therapy as it helps maintain bone density. However, in the context of a perimenopausal client with a history of breast cancer, the focus should be on the potential risks associated with hormone therapy rather than its benefits for osteoporosis. Option D) Arteriosclerosis, or hardening of the arteries, is not directly related to the discussion of hormone therapy in a perimenopausal client. While cardiovascular health is an important consideration in hormone therapy, a history of breast cancer takes precedence in this scenario. In an educational context, understanding the importance of individualized care and considering a client's medical history when discussing treatment options is crucial in providing safe and effective care. It highlights the need for healthcare providers to assess risks and benefits carefully, especially with hormone therapy, which can have significant implications for certain preexisting conditions.

Question 3 of 5

Which statement concerning cyclic perimenstrual pain and discomfort (CPPD) is accurate?

Correct Answer: c

Rationale: The correct answer is C) PMS is a complex poorly understood condition that may include any of a hundred symptoms. This statement is accurate because premenstrual syndrome (PMS) is indeed a complex condition with a wide range of symptoms that can vary greatly among individuals. The exact cause of PMS is not fully understood, and it is believed to involve a combination of hormonal fluctuations, neurotransmitter changes, and other factors. Option A is incorrect because premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD) is not a milder form of PMS; it is a more severe and debilitating condition that can significantly impact a person's quality of life. PMDD is not necessarily more common in young women either. Option B is incorrect because secondary dysmenorrhea is not more intense than primary dysmenorrhea. Secondary dysmenorrhea is typically caused by an underlying medical condition such as endometriosis or fibroids, while primary dysmenorrhea is usually related to normal menstrual processes. Option D is incorrect because the causes of PMS are not well-established. While hormonal fluctuations are believed to play a role, the exact mechanisms and contributing factors are still being researched. In an educational context, understanding the complexities of menstrual health issues like PMS is important for healthcare providers to provide accurate information, support, and treatment options for individuals experiencing these symptoms. By recognizing the nuances of these conditions, healthcare professionals can better address the needs of their patients and offer appropriate care and management strategies.

Question 4 of 5

Syphilis is a complex disease that can lead to serious systemic illness and even death if left untreateWhich manifestation differentiates primary syphilis from secondary syphilis?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D) Appearance of a chancre 2 months after infection. In primary syphilis, the initial manifestation is the development of a painless, solitary, firm ulcer called a chancre at the site of infection, typically appearing around 3 weeks after exposure. This is in contrast to secondary syphilis, where a widespread rash, along with other systemic symptoms like fever, headache, and malaise, occurs approximately 2 to 10 weeks after the appearance of the chancre. Option A) Fever, headache, and malaise are nonspecific symptoms that can occur in both primary and secondary syphilis but do not differentiate between the two stages. Option B) A widespread rash is a classic feature of secondary syphilis and does not occur in primary syphilis. Option C) Identification by serologic testing is a diagnostic method used for both primary and secondary syphilis and does not differentiate between the two stages. Understanding the clinical manifestations of syphilis is crucial for healthcare providers to accurately diagnose and treat patients. Recognizing the differences between primary and secondary syphilis aids in appropriate management and prevention of complications. This knowledge is essential for healthcare professionals working in maternal health to provide comprehensive care and prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the baby.

Question 5 of 5

A client exhibits a thick, white, lumpy, cottage cheeselike discharge, along with white patches on her labia and in her vaginShe complains of intense pruritus. Which medication should the nurse practitioner order to treat this condition?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct medication to treat the client's symptoms is Fluconazole (Option A). This client is presenting with classic symptoms of a vaginal yeast infection, also known as candidiasis. Fluconazole is an antifungal medication commonly used to treat fungal infections, including yeast infections. It works by stopping the growth of the fungus causing the infection. The other options (B) Tetracycline, (C) Clindamycin, and (D) Acyclovir are not appropriate for treating a yeast infection. Tetracycline and Clindamycin are antibiotics used to treat bacterial infections, not fungal infections like candidiasis. Acyclovir is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections such as herpes simplex virus infections, which are unrelated to the client's symptoms. Educationally, understanding the appropriate medication for specific infections is crucial for nurses and nurse practitioners to provide safe and effective care to their patients. It is essential to differentiate between different types of infections and select the proper treatment based on the underlying cause to promote positive health outcomes for the client.

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