ATI RN
health assessment test bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain. Incorrect Choices: A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C. C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency. In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.
Question 2 of 9
A newly admitted patient is in acute pain, has not been sleeping well lately, and is having difficulty breathing. How should the nurse prioritize these problems?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Breathing, pain, sleep. Prioritizing breathing is crucial as it is a life-threatening issue. Pain should be addressed next to ensure the patient's comfort and well-being. Sleep can be addressed last as it is a lower priority compared to breathing and pain. Prioritizing in this order ensures the patient's immediate needs are met first. Choice B is incorrect because sleep should not take precedence over pain when the patient is in acute pain. Choice C is incorrect because addressing sleep before breathing and pain can be detrimental to the patient's health. Choice D is incorrect because breathing should be the top priority over both pain and sleep.
Question 3 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The nurse should prioritize which of the following interventions?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administering bronchodilators as prescribed. Rationale: 1. Bronchodilators help dilate the airways, improving airflow in COPD patients. 2. Priority is to address the underlying respiratory issue. 3. Bronchodilators are a standard treatment for managing COPD symptoms. 4. Improving airway patency is crucial in COPD exacerbations. Summary: - B: Encouraging avoidance of physical activity is incorrect as it can lead to deconditioning. - C: Providing supplemental oxygen is important but not the priority in this case. - D: Monitoring for acute kidney injury is unrelated to COPD management.
Question 4 of 9
Which technique should the nurse use to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct technique to determine the presence of crepitus during a physical examination is palpation. Crepitus is a crackling or grating sensation that is felt when there is air trapped in the subcutaneous tissue. Palpation involves using the hands to feel for abnormalities such as crepitus. Percussion involves tapping on the body to produce sounds that can help assess underlying structures, not to determine the presence of crepitus. Auscultation is listening to sounds within the body using a stethoscope, which is not relevant for detecting crepitus.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the following best describes the purpose of a functional assessment?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.
Question 6 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving chemotherapy. The nurse should monitor for signs of which of the following complications?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decrease in neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), causing neutropenia. This increases the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in patients receiving chemotherapy to prevent serious complications. Anemia (A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to infection risk. Hyperkalemia (B) and hypocalcemia (D) are less likely to be immediate complications of chemotherapy compared to neutropenia.
Question 7 of 9
A nurse is caring for a patient who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. The nurse should prioritize which of the following in the immediate post-operative period?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Encouraging deep breathing and coughing exercises. This is prioritized in the immediate post-operative period to prevent respiratory complications like atelectasis and pneumonia. Deep breathing helps to expand the lungs and coughing helps clear secretions. Administering pain medication (A) is important but not the top priority. Monitoring for signs of infection (C) is crucial but usually done after ensuring respiratory stability. Providing solid food (D) is contraindicated initially to prevent post-operative complications like ileus.
Question 8 of 9
What should the nurse monitor when caring for a client receiving anticoagulant therapy?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Monitor INR levels. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is a crucial parameter to monitor for clients on anticoagulant therapy, as it measures the effectiveness of the medication in preventing blood clots. By monitoring INR levels, the nurse can ensure the client is within the therapeutic range to prevent both bleeding and clotting complications. Choice A (Monitor platelet count) is incorrect because anticoagulant therapy does not directly affect platelet count, and monitoring platelets is more relevant for clients on antiplatelet therapy. Choice C (Monitor bleeding) is partially correct, but focusing solely on monitoring bleeding may not provide a comprehensive assessment of the client's response to anticoagulant therapy. Choice D (Monitor renal function) is incorrect as anticoagulant therapy primarily affects coagulation factors and not renal function. Renal function monitoring may be necessary for certain medications but is not a primary consideration for anticoagulant therapy.
Question 9 of 9
A patient with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being assessed. The nurse would expect to find which of the following symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Edema and proteinuria. In CKD, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products effectively, leading to fluid retention (edema) and protein leaking into the urine (proteinuria). Edema occurs due to fluid buildup from decreased kidney function. Proteinuria is a result of damaged glomeruli in the kidneys, allowing proteins to leak into the urine. Weight loss and polyphagia (excessive hunger) are not typical symptoms of CKD. Hypertension and tachycardia can occur in CKD due to fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances. Hypothermia and bradycardia are not common symptoms of CKD and would be more indicative of other conditions.