Which condition is associated with inadequate intake of vitamin C?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Scurvy. Scurvy is caused by a deficiency in vitamin C, which is essential for collagen synthesis. Without enough vitamin C, collagen production is impaired, leading to symptoms like bleeding gums, fatigue, and joint pain. Incorrect Choices: A: Rickets is caused by a deficiency in vitamin D, not vitamin C. B: Marasmus is a severe form of malnutrition due to inadequate intake of calories and protein, not specifically vitamin C. C: Kwashiorkor is a form of severe acute malnutrition typically caused by inadequate protein intake, not vitamin C deficiency. In summary, the correct answer is D (Scurvy) because it directly relates to inadequate intake of vitamin C, while the other choices are associated with different nutrient deficiencies.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because alcohol can interact with medications and exacerbate certain medical conditions. The nurse needs this information to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choice A is incorrect because the question is not about the patient's reliability. Choice C is incorrect as it assumes the nurse is required to educate the patient about alcohol dangers. Choice D is incorrect because even without an obvious drinking problem, alcohol use can still impact the patient's health.

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because increasing physical activity and reducing stress are important lifestyle changes for managing chronic hypertension. Exercise helps lower blood pressure and stress reduction techniques can help control hypertension. Option A is incorrect as reducing sodium intake, not increasing it, is recommended. Option C is incorrect as medications for hypertension should be taken as prescribed, not only when blood pressure increases. Option D is incorrect as monitoring blood pressure should be done regularly, but not necessarily every week.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Step 1: Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor commonly prescribed post-myocardial infarction to reduce strain on the heart and prevent further damage. Step 2: ACE inhibitors like Lisinopril help lower blood pressure and improve heart function. Step 3: By reducing the workload on the heart, Lisinopril can help prevent complications post-MI. Step 4: Acetaminophen (B) is a pain reliever and does not address the cardiovascular issues post-MI. Step 5: Furosemide (C) and Hydrochlorothiazide (D) are diuretics typically used for managing fluid retention, not the primary focus after an MI. Summary: Lisinopril is the correct choice as it helps improve heart function and prevent complications post-MI, unlike the other options which do not directly address the cardiovascular issues associated with MI.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. ARDS is characterized by severe hypoxemia, and oxygen therapy is essential to improve oxygenation. Administering corticosteroids (B) is not recommended as they do not improve outcomes in ARDS. Monitoring serum glucose (C) is unrelated to the treatment of ARDS. Administering pain relief (D) is important for patient comfort but does not address the underlying hypoxemia in ARDS. Oxygen therapy is the primary treatment to support respiratory function and improve oxygen delivery in ARDS.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct first action is A: Apply pressure and elevate the limb. This is because applying pressure helps control bleeding and elevating the limb reduces blood flow to the area, minimizing further blood loss. This immediate intervention is crucial in managing the traumatic amputation and preventing complications. Summary of why other choices are incorrect: B: Stopping bleeding and controlling shock can be important but not the first action. C: Placing the client in a Trendelenburg position (feet elevated higher than the head) is contraindicated in cases of traumatic amputation as it can increase bleeding. D: Placing the client in a sitting position is not appropriate as it can worsen bleeding and lead to further complications.

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Neutropenia. Chemotherapy can suppress bone marrow function, leading to a decrease in neutrophils (a type of white blood cell), causing neutropenia. This increases the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in patients receiving chemotherapy to prevent serious complications. Anemia (A) is a common side effect of chemotherapy but is not directly related to infection risk. Hyperkalemia (B) and hypocalcemia (D) are less likely to be immediate complications of chemotherapy compared to neutropenia.

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Oxygen administration is the first intervention for shock as it helps improve oxygenation to vital organs. Lack of oxygen can worsen shock. Administering IV fluids (choice B) could be the second step to improve perfusion. Monitoring respiratory rate (choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering pain medication (choice D) is not a priority in managing shock.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because a functional assessment specifically evaluates an older adult's ability to manage day-to-day activities, such as personal care, meal preparation, and mobility. This assessment helps identify any difficulties the individual may have in performing these essential tasks, which can then inform appropriate interventions or support services. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the primary focus of a functional assessment, which is to evaluate an individual's functional abilities and independence in daily living tasks, particularly in the context of aging or disability.