Which communication technique should Nurse Cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting?

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Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions

Question 1 of 9

Which communication technique should Nurse Cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Nurse Cris should employ the communication technique of summarizing to successfully capture the details of the meeting. Summarizing involves condensing the information provided into a concise and organized form, which would help Nurse Cris remember and retain the key points discussed during the meeting. By summarizing the details, Nurse Cris can ensure that no important information is missed and can also confirm understanding by reflecting back the main points discussed. This technique promotes effective communication by enhancing clarity and reinforcing comprehension.

Question 2 of 9

A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, hyperpigmentation of the skin, and salt craving. Laboratory tests reveal low serum sodium levels and elevated serum potassium levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Addison's disease is a rare endocrine disorder characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to a deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone production. The symptoms of Addison's disease include fatigue, weakness, hyperpigmentation of the skin (due to elevated levels of ACTH stimulating melanocytes), and salt craving (due to aldosterone deficiency). Low serum sodium levels and elevated serum potassium levels are also common laboratory findings in Addison's disease, as aldosterone plays a key role in maintaining electrolyte balance. Patients with Addison's disease are at risk of developing an adrenal crisis, which can be life-threatening if not promptly recognized and treated with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy.

Question 3 of 9

In conducting a study on sleep, Nurse Trining was asked which of the types of research will be used should it involve collecting numerical data which is most often under considerable control. Her answer should be _________.

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Quantitative research is the type of research that involves collecting numerical data, which can be easily quantified and analyzed statistically. It is characterized by its structured methodology, objectivity, and the ability to control variables to a considerable extent. In the context of a study on sleep, where data related to sleep patterns, duration, quality, etc., need to be measured and analyzed in a systematic manner, quantitative research would be the most appropriate choice. This type of research allows for a more precise understanding of the relationships and patterns within the data, providing valuable insights into the sleep-related factors being studied.

Question 4 of 9

A nurse is preparing to perform a wound debridement procedure for a patient with a necrotic wound. What action should the nurse prioritize to minimize patient discomfort during the procedure?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: Administering systemic analgesia, such as pain medications or anesthesia, before the wound debridement procedure is the most effective way to minimize patient discomfort. These medications will help manage and reduce the pain experienced by the patient during the procedure, making it more tolerable for them. Topical anesthetic cream may provide some localized relief but may not be sufficient for significant pain management during a wound debridement procedure. Using sharp debridement techniques or performing the procedure quickly may help reduce manipulation or duration, respectively, but these actions alone may not adequately address the patient's pain and discomfort. Administering systemic analgesia ensures that the patient's overall pain is managed, promoting a more comfortable and successful wound debridement procedure.

Question 5 of 9

Which of the following procedures would be MOST helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: Monitoring cardiac enzymes would be most helpful to Nurse Victor to confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock. Cardiac enzymes are specific markers in the blood that indicate damage to the heart muscle, such as troponin and creatine kinase-MB (CK-MB). When a patient experiences cardiogenic shock, there is usually damage to the heart muscle which leads to the release of these enzymes into the bloodstream. Monitoring cardiac enzymes can help confirm if the cause of cardiogenic shock is related to myocardial infarction or another cardiac issue. This information is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for the patient. Monitoring pulmonary artery pressure, mean arterial pressure, and central venous pressure may provide important hemodynamic information but may not directly confirm the underlying cause of cardiogenic shock.

Question 6 of 9

Which of the following conditions is characterized by the formation of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate stones within the renal collecting system?

Correct Answer: D

Rationale: Nephrolithiasis refers to the formation of stones within the kidney or urinary tract. The most common types of kidney stones are either composed of calcium oxalate or calcium phosphate. When these stones form within the renal collecting system, they can lead to symptoms such as flank pain, hematuria, and urinary obstruction. Ureteropelvic junction (UPJ) obstruction and ureterovesical junction (UVJ) obstruction are specific types of blockages within the urinary system that can be caused by kidney stones but are not characteristic of the stone formation itself. Renal colic is the term used to describe the severe pain associated with the passage of a kidney stone through the ureter.

Question 7 of 9

A patient with a severe bacterial infection has elevated levels of C-reactive protein (CRP) in their blood. Which of the following functions does CRP primarily serve during the acute phase response?

Correct Answer: B

Rationale: During the acute phase response, C-reactive protein (CRP) primarily serves to activate the complement system. CRP binds to phosphocholine on the surface of pathogens, allowing for the activation of the classical pathway of the complement system. This leads to the recruitment of immune cells, opsonization of pathogens, and enhancement of phagocytosis. The activation of the complement system by CRP plays a crucial role in the host defense against infections, aiding in the elimination of pathogens and the resolution of inflammation.

Question 8 of 9

A patient presents with acute onset of severe headache, visual disturbances, and vomiting. Imaging reveals a tumor compressing the optic chiasm. Which of the following neurological conditions is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

Correct Answer: C

Rationale: A pituitary adenoma is a type of benign tumor that arises from the pituitary gland, which is located at the base of the brain. When a pituitary adenoma grows large enough, it can compress surrounding structures, including the optic chiasm – the point at which the optic nerves cross over in the brain. Compression of the optic chiasm can lead to symptoms such as vision problems (e.g., visual disturbances), headaches, and nausea/vomiting, which are consistent with the presentation described in the question. Meningiomas, glioblastoma multiforme, and medulloblastomas are less likely to compress the optic chiasm and present with different characteristic symptoms based on their locations and growth patterns.

Question 9 of 9

A patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) demonstrates a positive antinuclear antibody (ANA) test and elevated levels of anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies. Which of the following mechanisms is most likely responsible for the production of these autoantibodies?

Correct Answer: A

Rationale: The development of autoantibodies such as antinuclear antibodies (ANA) and anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA) antibodies in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is primarily attributed to a loss of self-tolerance. Self-tolerance refers to the immune system's ability to recognize and differentiate self-antigens from foreign antigens. In individuals with SLE, there is a breakdown in immune tolerance mechanisms, leading to the production of autoantibodies against self-antigens like nuclear components (e.g., DNA, RNA, histones). This loss of self-tolerance results in the immune system targeting and attacking its tissues, leading to the systemic inflammation and tissue damage characteristic of SLE. The presence of elevated levels of ANA and anti-dsDNA antibodies in this patient suggests an autoimmune response against nuclear material, further supporting the role of self-tolerance breakdown in SLE

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