ATI RN
Foundations and Adult Health Nursing Test Bank Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which communication technique should Nurse Cris employ in order to successfully capture the details of the meeting?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Nurse Cris should employ the communication technique of summarizing to successfully capture the details of the meeting. Summarizing involves condensing the information provided into a concise and organized form, which would help Nurse Cris remember and retain the key points discussed during the meeting. By summarizing the details, Nurse Cris can ensure that no important information is missed and can also confirm understanding by reflecting back the main points discussed. This technique promotes effective communication by enhancing clarity and reinforcing comprehension.
Question 2 of 9
Which assessment finding would lead the nurse to suspect a postpartum hemorrhage? Blood loss of _____.
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Postpartum hemorrhage is defined as a blood loss of more than 500 ml within the first 24 hours after vaginal delivery or more than 1000 ml following a cesarean delivery. Excessive bleeding can lead to hypovolemic shock and can be life-threatening if not promptly addressed. Therefore, a blood loss of more than 500 ml/24 hours would lead the nurse to suspect a postpartum hemorrhage and prompt further assessment and intervention.
Question 3 of 9
Which is not a correct statement regarding record-keeping?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Record-keeping is not an optional task; it is a critical aspect of professional nursing practice. As a nurse, maintaining accurate and timely records is essential for providing quality care, ensuring legal and ethical standards are met, and promoting patient safety. Failure to keep thorough records can lead to serious consequences such as compromising patient care, violating regulations, and even facing legal consequences. Thus, record-keeping should be seen as a mandatory part of the professional duty of nurses rather than an optional task that can be done when circumstances allow.
Question 4 of 9
A patient presents with fatigue, pallor, and dyspnea on exertion. Laboratory tests reveal a low hemoglobin level, decreased mean corpuscular volume (MCV), and decreased mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC). Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause these findings?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The patient's presentation with fatigue, pallor, dyspnea on exertion, low hemoglobin level, decreased MCV, and decreased MCHC are all consistent with iron deficiency anemia. Iron deficiency anemia is the most common type of anemia and occurs when there is insufficient iron available for hemoglobin production. The low hemoglobin level results in symptoms such as fatigue and pallor, while the decreased MCV and MCHC indicate microcytic and hypochromic red blood cells, respectively, which are characteristic of iron deficiency anemia. Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia and thalassemia typically present with a different pattern of laboratory findings and clinical manifestations. Sickle cell anemia is characterized by sickle-shaped red blood cells due to a genetic mutation, and the laboratory findings in sickle cell anemia are different from those seen in the patient described in this scenario.
Question 5 of 9
If the patient is unable to talk, how should the nurse BEST communicate to the patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is unable to talk, the nurse can best communicate with the patient by using picture cards. Picture cards can help the patient convey their needs, feelings, or responses by pointing to the corresponding pictures. This method allows for effective communication and understanding between the patient and the nurse, even when verbal communication is not possible. It promotes patient autonomy and ensures that their needs are accurately communicated and addressed. Additionally, picture cards can be a useful tool in reducing frustration and anxiety for patients who are unable to communicate verbally.
Question 6 of 9
A patient with suspected tuberculosis (TB) presents with cough, weight loss, night sweats, and hemoptysis. Chest X-ray reveals upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation. Which of the following diagnostic tests is most appropriate for confirming the diagnosis of pulmonary TB?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: In a patient with suspected pulmonary TB, the most appropriate diagnostic test for confirming the diagnosis is the sputum acid-fast bacilli (AFB) smear and culture. This test involves examining sputum samples under the microscope for the presence of acid-fast bacilli, which are characteristic of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that causes TB. Additionally, culturing the sputum allows for the bacteria to grow in a controlled environment, further confirming the diagnosis. In the given scenario, the patient's symptoms (cough, weight loss, night sweats, hemoptysis), along with chest X-ray findings of upper lobe infiltrates and cavitation, are highly suggestive of pulmonary TB. Therefore, performing a sputum AFB smear and culture is crucial for definitive diagnosis and initiation of appropriate treatment. The other options (Tuberculin skin test, Interferon
Question 7 of 9
Every pregnant woman preparing for labor and delivery have a birth plan. What is the Primary objective of a birth plan? It describes _________.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The primary objective of a birth plan is to provide a pregnant woman the opportunity to outline her wishes and preferences regarding her labor, delivery, and postpartum care. It allows the mother-to-be to communicate her desires to the healthcare team in advance, ensuring that her preferences are considered and respected during the birthing process. A birth plan typically covers various aspects such as pain management options, who she wants present during labor, interventions she may want to avoid, plans for after birth care, and any other specific requests she may have. Ultimately, a birth plan aims to empower the woman to have a more personalized and satisfying birth experience by actively involving her in the decision-making process.
Question 8 of 9
A patient presents with fatigue, weakness, hyperpigmentation of the skin, and salt craving. Laboratory tests reveal low serum sodium levels and elevated serum potassium levels. Which endocrine disorder is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Addison's disease is a rare endocrine disorder characterized by adrenal insufficiency, leading to a deficiency in cortisol and aldosterone production. The symptoms of Addison's disease include fatigue, weakness, hyperpigmentation of the skin (due to elevated levels of ACTH stimulating melanocytes), and salt craving (due to aldosterone deficiency). Low serum sodium levels and elevated serum potassium levels are also common laboratory findings in Addison's disease, as aldosterone plays a key role in maintaining electrolyte balance. Patients with Addison's disease are at risk of developing an adrenal crisis, which can be life-threatening if not promptly recognized and treated with glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy.
Question 9 of 9
Choose from the following the primary goals of TPN? I. promote weight gain II. improve nutritional status III. maintain muscle mass IV. establish nitrogen balance! V. enhance healing process
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Total Parenteral Nutrition (TPN) is a method of providing nutrition to patients who cannot or should not obtain their nutrition through regular oral intake. The primary goals of TPN include promoting weight gain, improving nutritional status, maintaining muscle mass, and establishing nitrogen balance. These goals are crucial to support the overall health and well-being of the patient receiving TPN. Enhancing the healing process is an important aspect of TPN as well, but it is not considered one of the primary goals as weight gain, nutritional status, muscle mass, and nitrogen balance are typically the immediate priorities when administering TPN.