ATI RN
Nursing Process Test Questions Questions
Question 1 of 9
Which common side effect of metolazone (Zaroxolyn) should the nurse instruct a patient to report to the health- care provider?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Muscle weakness. Metolazone is a diuretic that can lead to low potassium levels, causing muscle weakness. Instructing the patient to report muscle weakness is crucial to prevent any potential serious complications. Numb hands, gastrointestinal distress, and nightmares are not commonly associated with metolazone and do not pose as immediate risks as muscle weakness does. It is essential to prioritize the most critical side effect to ensure the patient's safety and well-being.
Question 2 of 9
What is the first action the nurse should take?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Check for neurologic status. This is the first action because assessing the patient's neurologic status helps identify any immediate threats to their health and guides further interventions. It is crucial to ensure the patient's safety and prioritize interventions based on their neurologic status. Starting an IV for fluids (A), getting an ECG (B), and placing a Foley catheter (C) are important interventions but should come after assessing the patient's neurologic status to address any urgent issues first.
Question 3 of 9
What is the nurse’s firstaction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. First, reviewing lab results for potassium level is important in assessing potential electrolyte imbalances that may contribute to the patient's symptoms. This allows for a comprehensive understanding of the patient's condition. Assessing the patient for other symptoms or problems is crucial to gather additional information. Finally, notifying the healthcare provider ensures timely communication and collaboration for appropriate care. Choice A is incorrect as following a clinical protocol for a stroke is premature without a comprehensive assessment. Choice C is incorrect as administering medication without a thorough assessment and provider notification can be dangerous. Choice D is incorrect as notifying the healthcare provider should precede administering any medication.
Question 4 of 9
After receiving a dose of penicillin, a client develops dyspnea and hypotension. The nurse suspects the client is experiencing anaphylactic shock. What should the nurse do first?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Administering epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylactic shock to reverse hypotension and bronchoconstriction. Intubation may be necessary if airway compromise occurs despite epinephrine. Paging an anesthesiologist (A) is not the priority. Administering penicillin antidote (C) is not indicated in anaphylaxis. Inserting a urinary catheter and infusing IV fluids (D) may be necessary later but not the priority in managing anaphylactic shock.
Question 5 of 9
Which of the ff nursing interventions ensure that a client with Hodgkin’s disease remains free of infection? Choose all that apply
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Rationale: C: Practice conscientious hand washing is correct as it helps prevent the spread of infection. Proper hand hygiene is essential in reducing the risk of infection transmission to the client with Hodgkin's disease. A: Apply ice to the skin for brief periods is incorrect as it does not directly relate to preventing infection in the client. B: Provide cool sponge baths is incorrect as it mainly addresses comfort and hygiene but does not specifically target infection prevention. D: Use cotton gloves Restrict visitors or personnel with infections from contact with the client is incorrect because while using gloves can help prevent the spread of infection, restricting visitors with infections is not under the direct control of the nurse. Summary: Practicing conscientious hand washing is crucial in preventing infection in a client with Hodgkin's disease, while the other choices do not directly address infection control in this context.
Question 6 of 9
The nurse begins a shift assessment by examining a surgical dressing that is saturated with serosanguineous drainage on a patient who had open abdominal surgery yesterday (or 1 day ago). Which type of assessment approach is the nurse using?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: General to specific assessment. This type of assessment approach involves starting with a broad overview of the patient's condition and then narrowing down to specific details. In this scenario, the nurse begins by examining the surgical dressing, which is a specific aspect of the patient's condition, after which they can proceed to gather more detailed information about the drainage, wound healing, and any associated symptoms. This approach allows the nurse to systematically assess the patient's postoperative status and identify any potential issues. A: Gordon’s Functional Health Patterns is a comprehensive framework for organizing patient data, but it does not specifically address the sequence of assessment in this scenario. B: Activity-exercise pattern assessment focuses on the patient's activity level and exercise habits, which is not the primary concern in this situation. D: Problem-oriented assessment involves identifying and addressing specific health problems, but it does not capture the systematic progression from general to specific assessment as seen in this scenario.
Question 7 of 9
Which action by the nurse is appropriate?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because observing the patient for abnormal bleeding is an appropriate action to monitor for potential complications of warfarin therapy. This aligns with the nursing role in assessing and monitoring patient responses to treatment. B is incorrect as increasing warfarin dose without physician order can lead to adverse effects. C is incorrect as altering the dose without medical advice can be dangerous. D is incorrect as administering Vitamin K would counteract the effects of warfarin, which is used to prevent blood clotting.
Question 8 of 9
What equipment should the nurse prepare for the primary care provider when a woman says she is concerned about possible Chlamydia infection?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Chlamydia collection kit. The primary care provider will need the collection kit to gather a sample for testing. A Chlamydia slide (A) is not necessary as the provider needs to collect a sample first. A Chlamydia swab (C) is used to collect the sample, not to provide to the provider. A Chlamydia wet mount (D) is not appropriate for Chlamydia testing, as it is typically used for other types of infections.
Question 9 of 9
A hospitalized client has the following blood lab values: WBC 3,000/ul, RBC 5.0 (X 106), platelets 300, 000, what would be a priority nursing intervention?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Preventing infection. With a low WBC count of 3,000/ul, the client is at high risk for infection due to compromised immune function. Priority is to prevent infection by implementing strict infection control measures, such as hand hygiene, sterile techniques, and isolation precautions. Alleviating pain (B) would be important but not the priority in this case. Controlling infection (C) is similar to preventing infection and would be a secondary intervention. Monitoring blood transfusion reactions (D) is not relevant to the client's current lab values.