ATI RN
Concept of Family Centered Care Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which client has met the criteria for psychiatric homebound care?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because the client meets the criteria for psychiatric homebound care by experiencing severe panic attacks when trying to leave the home. This indicates significant impairment in functioning outside the home. Explanation: 1. Criterion met: The client's severe panic attacks prevent her from leaving the home, indicating a need for care within the home environment. 2. Impairment in functioning: The client's panic attacks significantly impact her ability to engage in daily activities outside the home. 3. Duration of symptoms: The client has experienced these severe panic attacks for the last 5 years, indicating a chronic and persistent condition. Summary of other choices: A: Depression alone does not necessarily warrant psychiatric homebound care. B: Delusions related to paranoid schizophrenia do not inherently restrict the client to homebound care. D: Obsessive-compulsive behaviors, while impactful, do not specifically require homebound care unless they severely impair functioning outside the home.
Question 2 of 5
The nurse is engaging in patient- and family-centered care most effectively when:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because including a client's homosexual partner in discharge planning demonstrates respect for the client's relationships and values, promoting inclusivity and support. This aligns with patient- and family-centered care principles. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses on visitation rights rather than involving the family in care decisions. Choice C involves the nurse facilitating communication but does not necessarily demonstrate partnership with the client's support system. Choice D, while commendable, does not directly relate to individualized care for a specific patient and their family.
Question 3 of 5
A client is questioning why she was told that the nausea she is experiencing with this new antidepressant medication will subside once her medication is regulated. Based on the pharmacologic principle of steady state, the nurse explains that:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because steady state refers to the point where drug intake equals drug elimination in the body, leading to a constant drug concentration. This equilibrium is reached after approximately 4-5 half-lives of the medication. Once the body reaches steady state, the drug's effects, including nausea, become more predictable and stable. Choice B is incorrect because blood work cannot determine the exact time it takes for the body to reach steady state. Choice C is incorrect because the number of doses is not a reliable indicator for when steady state is reached, as it depends on the drug's half-life and individual factors. Choice D is incorrect because stating that antidepressants have a relatively short half-life is not universally true, and the time to reach steady state can vary depending on the specific medication and individual factors.
Question 4 of 5
A client has not been taking his antidepressant medication as prescribed and is admitted with suicidal ideations. The nurse demonstrates an understanding of a possible underlying cause of a client's noncompliance with the treatment plan designed to help manage his depression when:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because it addresses the potential underlying cause of noncompliance - the client's sense of lack of control over their depression, which can lead to hopelessness and suicidal ideations. By asking this question, the nurse can assess the client's perception of their depression and empower them to discuss their feelings of helplessness. Choice B focuses on assessing the client's understanding of the risk of suicide but does not directly address the underlying cause of noncompliance. Choice C involves documenting a supportive statement from the client's son, which is not directly related to the client's noncompliance. Choice D involves observing the client's interaction with family members, which may provide valuable information but does not directly address the underlying cause of noncompliance.
Question 5 of 5
When an older adult diagnosed with depression reports that she has been taking over-the-counter (OTC) melatonin, the nurse asks:
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Have you been having trouble sleeping?" This is the correct question because melatonin is commonly used as a sleep aid. The nurse should inquire about the patient's sleep patterns to assess the effectiveness of melatonin and potential side effects related to sleep. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the use of melatonin as a sleep aid in older adults with depression. Asking about memory, anxiety, or weight loss is not as relevant in this context.