ATI RN
Safety Pharmacology Across the Lifespan ATI Quizlet Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which classification of oral hypoglycemic drugs decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Biguanide (metformin). Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production by inhibiting gluconeogenesis and increases insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues, which enhances glucose uptake. Sulfonylureas and meglitinides stimulate insulin secretion from the pancreas. Alpha-glycosidase inhibitors delay carbohydrate absorption in the gut. Metformin's dual mechanism of action makes it the correct choice for decreasing hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake.
Question 2 of 5
The anti-inflammatory effect of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is due to their ability to do which of the following?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because NSAIDs inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Prostaglandins are lipid compounds that promote inflammation, pain, and fever. By inhibiting their synthesis, NSAIDs reduce inflammation and pain. Choice A is incorrect as the chemoreceptor trigger zone is not related to the anti-inflammatory effect of NSAIDs. Choice B is also incorrect as NSAIDs do not reset the hypothalamic 'setpoint'. Choice C is incorrect as the correct answer is D.
Question 3 of 5
What mechanism of action or pharmacological action is best associated with memantine?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: NMDA receptor antagonist. Memantine is an NMDA receptor antagonist, which means it blocks the activity of NMDA receptors, specifically by binding to the receptor-operated cation channels and blocking the excessive influx of calcium ions. This mechanism helps regulate glutamate activity and prevents excitotoxicity. Choices A and B are incorrect because memantine is not related to GABA function or concentration. Choice D is incorrect as an NMDA receptor agonist would increase receptor activity, opposite to memantine's action.
Question 4 of 5
Which of the following is most likely an indication for serotonin norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Depression. SNRIs are commonly prescribed for depression as they work by increasing levels of serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which help regulate mood. In contrast, options A, B, and D are not typically indications for SNRIs. CHF (A) is treated with medications that help the heart function better, acute pancreatitis (B) is managed with pain control and supportive care, and autism (D) is managed with behavioral therapies and sometimes medications targeting specific symptoms. Hence, depression (C) is the most likely indication for SNRIs based on their mechanism of action and common therapeutic uses.
Question 5 of 5
Patients with Alzheimer's disease, which factors are associated with the pathophysiology of this disease? Select all that apply.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because neuronal degeneration and decreased acetylcholine are key factors associated with the pathophysiology of Alzheimer's disease. Neuronal degeneration leads to cognitive decline, while decreased acetylcholine contributes to memory impairment. Incorrect Responses: B: Autoimmune changes in the myelin sheath are not typically associated with Alzheimer's disease, as it primarily involves neuronal degeneration. C: Beta-amyloid and neuritic plaques are characteristic pathological features of Alzheimer's disease, but they are not directly associated with the underlying pathophysiology. D: Neurofibrillary tangles and tau are also pathological hallmarks of Alzheimer's disease, but they are not the primary factors driving the disease process.