ATI RN
Pharmacology Assessment 2 ATI Capstone Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which classification of drugs would the nurse refuse to administer to a pregnant patient?
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Teratogenic drugs (e.g., thalidomide) cause fetal harm, absolute no-go in pregnancy, per safety. Category A is safe (e.g., levothyroxine). Category B has no human risk (e.g., metformin). ‘Cautionary' isn't a class-teratogenic fits X or known risks. Refusing teratogens protects the fetus, a clear rule.
Question 2 of 5
A 71-year-old man who has chronic back pain after falling from a first-floor apartment 25 years ago is managed with a morphine pump for his chronic pain. He also had a long history of chronic diarrhea that preceded his accident. The pump has been in place for 22 years. Which of the following effects will still likely be maintained by the device at this time?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Long-term morphine via pump sustains certain effects. Constipation persists-tolerance doesn't fully develop to GI μ-receptor effects, unlike analgesia , euphoria , or sedation (E). Pupil dilation is incorrect; morphine causes miosis. After 22 years, constipation remains a chronic issue, reflecting opioid pharmacology.
Question 3 of 5
A 57-year-old man with a history of intermittent angina normally takes sublingual nitroglycerin when attacks occur. He states that he does not take this medication because it makes him feel 'funny... itch uncontrollably... and have pain radiating to his toes.' These symptoms have never been witnessed by his family members who are with him all the time. What is the best course of action for the treating physician to take?
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Unusual nitroglycerin reactions (itching, toe pain) unwitnessed by family suggest noncompliance or psychogenic issues. Encourage use and explore reasons . Psychiatric or behavioral consults are premature. Switching or antipsychotics (E) ignores clarification. This approach ensures proper angina management.
Question 4 of 5
A 26-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of seasonal allergies. She has done well without medications for some time but now has worsening of her symptoms. She is given a prescription for fexofenadine. Which of the following adverse effects must be considered in this patient?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fexofenadine for allergies may cause headache , a frequent side effect of this non-sedating antihistamine. Flank pain , otitis , infection , and tinnitus (E) are rare. Headache monitoring ensures safe symptom relief.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following antipsychotic agents is considered to be the most potent and, thus, have the highest risk of extrapyramidal symptoms?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Fluphenazine, a high-potency first-generation antipsychotic, strongly blocks D2 receptors, requiring lower doses for efficacy but increasing EPS risk (e.g., dystonia, parkinsonism) due to intense dopamine antagonism in the nigrostriatal pathway. Thioridazine and chlorpromazine, low-potency first-generation drugs, have weaker D2 affinity, causing more sedation and anticholinergic effects than EPS. Quetiapine, a second-generation antipsychotic, has low D2 potency and minimal EPS. Clozapine avoids EPS with broad receptor activity. Fluphenazine's potency, measured by dose equivalence and clinical data, correlates with its elevated EPS risk, distinguishing it here.