ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Across the Lifespan Questions
Question 1 of 5
Which class of medications is used for the treatment of erectile dysfunction?
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Phosphodiesterase type 5 inhibitors (PDE5 inhibitors) are used for treating erectile dysfunction by increasing blood flow to the penis. Beta-blockers (A), ACE inhibitors (C), and diuretics (D) are not indicated for erectile dysfunction treatment as they do not target the underlying physiological mechanisms responsible for erectile function. PDE5 inhibitors specifically target the vasodilation process in the penis, leading to improved erectile function.
Question 2 of 5
A 55-year-old female with type 2 diabetes is prescribed canagliflozin. Canagliflozin works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inhibiting the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys. Canagliflozin is a sodium-glucose cotransporter-2 (SGLT2) inhibitor that works by blocking the reabsorption of glucose in the kidneys, leading to increased urinary glucose excretion and lowering blood glucose levels. This mechanism of action is unique to SGLT2 inhibitors and helps improve glycemic control in patients with type 2 diabetes. Choice B is incorrect because canagliflozin does not stimulate the pancreas to release more insulin. Choice C is incorrect as canagliflozin does not increase the release of glucagon from the pancreas. Choice D is incorrect because canagliflozin does not directly improve insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. The key mechanism of action of canagliflozin lies in its specific inhibition of glucose reabsorption in the kidneys, making choice A the correct answer.
Question 3 of 5
A 50-year-old male with chronic hypertension is prescribed clonidine. Clonidine works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Rationale: Clonidine is a centrally acting alpha-2 adrenergic agonist that inhibits the release of norepinephrine in the brainstem. By activating alpha-2 receptors, it reduces sympathetic outflow from the CNS, leading to decreased peripheral vascular resistance and heart rate. This mechanism helps in lowering blood pressure. Summary of other choices: B: Blocking calcium channels would be a mechanism of action for calcium channel blockers, not clonidine. C: Stimulating beta-1 receptors in the heart would increase heart rate and contractility, opposite to clonidine's effects. D: Inhibiting angiotensin converting enzyme is a mechanism of action for ACE inhibitors, not clonidine.
Question 4 of 5
A 65-year-old male with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. Valsartan works by:
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Blocking the action of angiotensin II at its receptor. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB), which works by specifically blocking the binding of angiotensin II to its receptors, thereby preventing its vasoconstrictive and aldosterone-releasing effects. This leads to vasodilation and reduced sodium and water retention, ultimately lowering blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because valsartan does not inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, increase sodium excretion in the kidneys, or block calcium channels in the blood vessels.
Question 5 of 5
Which of the following is a common side effect of using corticosteroids for long-term therapy?
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyperglycemia. Corticosteroids can lead to increased blood glucose levels by promoting gluconeogenesis and reducing insulin sensitivity. This can result in hyperglycemia over time. Weight loss (B) is not a common side effect of corticosteroids; in fact, weight gain is more common. Hypotension (C) is not typically associated with corticosteroid use, as they can actually lead to fluid retention and increased blood pressure. Hypertension (D) is a potential side effect of corticosteroids due to sodium and water retention, but it is less common than hyperglycemia.